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SSC CGL Tier 1 Full Mock Test: Practice Test 04

Question paper with answer key. Selection Pro

Q1. Find the missing number in the series: 14, 28, 31, 124, 129, ?
  1. 774
  2. 645
  3. 516
  4. 387

Answer: (A) 774

Pattern: ×2, +3, ×4, +5, ×6. So 129 × 6 = 774.

Q2. Introducing a man, a woman said, 'His mother's mother-in-law is the only mother-in-law of my mother.' How is the man related to the woman?
  1. Brother
  2. Father
  3. Uncle
  4. Nephew

Answer: (A) Brother

The woman's mother's only mother-in-law is the woman's paternal grandmother. The man's mother's mother-in-law is also the same grandmother. Thus, the man's mother is the woman's mother, so the man is her brother.

Q3. A person starts from point A, walks 12 km East, turns right and walks 5 km to reach B. Then he turns 135° anti-clockwise and walks 13 km. How far and in which direction is he now from point A?
  1. 12 km, East
  2. 5 km, North
  3. 0 km, At point A
  4. 13 km, North-West

Answer: (C) 0 km, At point A

At B, he is 13 km South-East of A (since hypotenuse of 12 and 5 is 13, angle = tan⁻¹(5/12) South of East). Turning 135° anti-clockwise directs him straight back towards A along the 13 km path. Walking 13 km brings him back to starting point A.

Q4. If 'KALEIDOSCOPE' is coded as '213125941519315165', how will 'PERCEPTION' be coded?
  1. 1651835162091514
  2. 1651835162091515
  3. 1651835162091414
  4. 1651835162091513

Answer: (A) 1651835162091514

Letters are directly replaced by their respective positional numerical values: P(16) E(5) R(18) C(3) E(5) P(16) T(20) I(9) O(15) N(14).

Q5. Statements: I. All matrices are vectors. II. No vector is a scalar. III. Some scalars are tensors. Conclusions: I. No matrix is a scalar. II. Some tensors are not vectors.
  1. Only conclusion I follows
  2. Only conclusion II follows
  3. Both conclusions I and II follow
  4. Neither follows

Answer: (C) Both conclusions I and II follow

Since all matrices are vectors and no vector is a scalar, no matrix is a scalar (I follows). Since those tensors that are scalars cannot be vectors, some tensors are not vectors (II follows).

Q6. Select the next term in the letter series: Z1A, X4D, U9G, Q16J, ?
  1. L25M
  2. L25N
  3. K25M
  4. M25N

Answer: (A) L25M

First letter: Z(-2)->X(-3)->U(-4)->Q(-5)->L. Middle number: 1², 2², 3², 4², 5²=25. Last letter: A(+3)->D(+3)->G(+3)->J(+3)->M. Term = L25M.

Q7. If 15th August 2011 was a Monday, on what day of the week was 26th January 2016?
  1. Monday
  2. Tuesday
  3. Wednesday
  4. Thursday

Answer: (B) Tuesday

Days between Aug 15, 2011 and Aug 15, 2015 = 4 years + 1 leap year (2012) = 5 odd days. Aug 15, 2015 to Jan 26, 2016: Aug(16), Sep(30), Oct(31), Nov(30), Dec(31), Jan(26) = 164 days = 3 odd days. Total odd days = 5 + 3 = 8 ≡ 1 odd day. Monday + 1 = Tuesday.

Q8. Eight people A, B, C, D, E, F, G, and H are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A sits third to the left of C, who is second to the left of E. B sits second to the right of D, who is not an immediate neighbour of C or E. F sits second to the left of H. Who sits opposite to A?
  1. D
  2. E
  3. F
  4. G

Answer: (A) D

Arranging around circle step-by-step places D directly opposite to A.

Q9. Select the option that is related to the third word in the same way as the second word is related to the first word: Nephrology : Kidney :: Myology : ?
  1. Bones
  2. Muscles
  3. Fungi
  4. Blood

Answer: (B) Muscles

Nephrology is the study of kidneys; Myology is the study of the muscular system.

Q10. Complete the series: 7, 13, 25, 45, 75, ?
  1. 117
  2. 115
  3. 120
  4. 105

Answer: (A) 117

First differences: +6, +12, +20, +30. Second differences: +6, +8, +10, +12. Next first difference = 30 + 12 = 42. Next term = 75 + 42 = 117.

Q11. If the first half of the English alphabet is written in reverse order, which letter will be the 7th to the left of the 10th letter from the right end?
  1. C
  2. D
  3. E
  4. F

Answer: (A) C

10th from right = 17th from left (Q). 7th to left of 17th from left = 10th from left. First half reversed: M L K J I H G F E D C B A. The 10th letter in this reversed sequence is C.

Q12. At what time between 7 and 8 o'clock will the hands of a clock be at an angle of 45 degrees?
  1. 7:30
  2. 7:30 and 7:46(4/11)
  3. 7:30(6/11) and 7:46(4/11)
  4. 7:30 and 7:45

Answer: (C) 7:30(6/11) and 7:46(4/11)

Formula θ = |30H - 5.5M|. For 45°: 45 = 30(7) - 5.5M => 5.5M = 165 => M = 30(6/11) min. Also, 45 = 5.5M - 210 => 5.5M = 255 => M = 46(4/11) min.

Q13. In a class of 60 students, girls are twice that of boys. Kamal ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 girls ahead of Kamal, how many boys are after him in rank?
  1. 12
  2. 13
  3. 14
  4. 15

Answer: (A) 12

Total = 60; Girls = 40, Boys = 20. Kamal is 17th from top, so 16 students ahead. 9 are girls, so 7 are boys ahead of Kamal. Including Kamal (boy), 8 boys are accounted for up to his rank. Boys ranked after Kamal = 20 - 8 = 12.

Q14. If 'A + B' means A is the father of B; 'A - B' means A is the wife of B; 'A * B' means A is the brother of B; 'A / B' means A is the daughter of B. Which of the following shows that P is the paternal uncle of Q?
  1. P * R + Q
  2. P + R * Q
  3. P / R * Q
  4. P * R / Q

Answer: (A) P * R + Q

P * R + Q means P is brother of R, and R is father of Q. Thus, P is the paternal uncle of Q.

Q15. If A = 2, M = 26, and Z = 52, then what is the code value of 'BET'?
  1. 54
  2. 57
  3. 27
  4. 52

Answer: (A) 54

Code value = Letter position × 2. B(2×2=4) + E(5×2=10) + T(20×2=40) = 4 + 10 + 40 = 54.

Q16. Which of the following Venn diagrams best represents the relationship between: 'Engineers, Females, Mothers'?
  1. All Mothers are Females; Engineers overlap both Mothers and Females
  2. Mothers and Females are disjoint; Engineers overlap both
  3. Engineers, Females and Mothers are three intersecting circles
  4. Mothers contain both Females and Engineers

Answer: (A) All Mothers are Females; Engineers overlap both Mothers and Females

All Mothers are strictly Females. Engineers can be Females and can also be Mothers, so the Engineer circle intersects both.

Q17. Find the missing term in the sequence: 2, 10, 30, 68, 130, ?
  1. 222
  2. 216
  3. 220
  4. 224

Answer: (A) 222

Pattern is n³ + n. 1³+1=2, 2³+2=10, 3³+3=30, 4³+4=68, 5³+5=130, 6³+6 = 216 + 6 = 222.

Q18. In a row of trees, one tree is 7th from either end of the row. How many trees are there in the row?
  1. 13
  2. 14
  3. 12
  4. 11

Answer: (A) 13

Total = Left + Right - 1 = 7 + 7 - 1 = 13.

Q19. Statements: All stars are planets. All planets are galaxies. Conclusions: I. All stars are galaxies. II. Some galaxies are stars.
  1. Only I follows
  2. Only II follows
  3. Both I and II follow
  4. Neither follows

Answer: (C) Both I and II follow

Since Stars ⊂ Planets ⊂ Galaxies, all stars are galaxies and some galaxies are stars.

Q20. Select the option that correctly fits in place of '?': 8 : 256 :: 10 : ?
  1. 500
  2. 1000
  3. 600
  4. 400

Answer: (A) 500

Pattern: n³ / 2. 8³ / 2 = 512 / 2 = 256. Similarly, 10³ / 2 = 1000 / 2 = 500.

Q21. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to promulgate Ordinances during the recess of Parliament?
  1. Article 123
  2. Article 213
  3. Article 143
  4. Article 352

Answer: (A) Article 123

Article 123 grants the President the power to issue ordinances when either House of Parliament is not in session.

Q22. Who among the following was the founder of the Vikramashila University?
  1. Dharmapala
  2. Gopala
  3. Devapala
  4. Mahipala

Answer: (A) Dharmapala

Dharmapala, the famous Pala king, founded the Vikramashila Buddhist monastery/university in Bengal.

Q23. Which instrument is used for measuring very high temperatures, such as those of furnaces?
  1. Pyrometer
  2. Bolometer
  3. Barometer
  4. Manometer

Answer: (A) Pyrometer

A pyrometer is a remote-sensing thermometer used to measure high thermal radiation temperatures.

Q24. Which of the following passes connects Srinagar to Leh?
  1. Zoji La
  2. Nathu La
  3. Shipki La
  4. Bara-lacha La

Answer: (A) Zoji La

Zoji La is a high mountain pass in the Himalayas, connecting Srinagar with Leh in Ladakh.

Q25. The concept of 'Five-Year Plans' in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country?
  1. USSR
  2. USA
  3. UK
  4. Ireland

Answer: (A) USSR

India adopted the concept of Five-Year Planning from the Soviet Union (USSR).

Q26. In which session of the Indian National Congress was the resolution of 'Purna Swaraj' (Complete Independence) passed?
  1. Lahore Session 1929
  2. Karachi Session 1931
  3. Calcutta Session 1920
  4. Nagpur Session 1920

Answer: (A) Lahore Session 1929

The Historic Lahore Session of 1929, presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru, passed the Purna Swaraj resolution.

Q27. Which enzyme present in human saliva breaks down starch into simpler sugars?
  1. Salivary Amylase (Ptyalin)
  2. Pepsin
  3. Trypsin
  4. Lipase

Answer: (A) Salivary Amylase (Ptyalin)

Salivary amylase (ptyalin) converts complex starches into simpler sugars like maltose.

Q28. What is the phenomenon responsible for the twinkling of stars in the night sky?
  1. Atmospheric refraction
  2. Total internal reflection
  3. Dispersion of light
  4. Diffraction of light

Answer: (A) Atmospheric refraction

Twinkling of stars occurs due to continuous atmospheric refraction of light passing through changing air layers.

Q29. Which gland in the human body is known as both an endocrine and an exocrine gland (dual gland)?
  1. Pancreas
  2. Thyroid
  3. Pituitary
  4. Adrenal

Answer: (A) Pancreas

The pancreas acts as an exocrine gland (secreting digestive juice) and endocrine gland (secreting insulin/glucagon).

Q30. Which of the following is the main constituent of Biogas and CNG?
  1. Methane
  2. Ethane
  3. Propane
  4. Butane

Answer: (A) Methane

Methane (CH4) makes up around 75-90% of both Biogas and Compressed Natural Gas (CNG).

Q31. The World Economic Outlook report is published by which international organization?
  1. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  2. World Bank
  3. WEF
  4. UNDP

Answer: (A) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

The International Monetary Fund (IMF) publishes the World Economic Outlook twice a year.

Q32. Who was the Viceroy of India during the Partition of Bengal in 1905?
  1. Lord Curzon
  2. Lord Ripon
  3. Lord Lytton
  4. Lord Hardinge

Answer: (A) Lord Curzon

Lord Curzon was the Viceroy who ordered the Partition of Bengal in July 1905.

Q33. In the Indian Constitution, the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) are contained in which Part?
  1. Part IV
  2. Part III
  3. Part V
  4. Part IX

Answer: (A) Part IV

Part IV (Articles 36 to 51) contains the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Q34. Which Indian state has the longest coastline among all peninsular states?
  1. Gujarat
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Maharashtra

Answer: (A) Gujarat

Gujarat has the longest coastline in India (~1214 km).

Q35. What is the chemical name of Vitamin C?
  1. Ascorbic Acid
  2. Citric Acid
  3. Retinol
  4. Tocopherol

Answer: (A) Ascorbic Acid

Vitamin C is chemically known as Ascorbic Acid.

Q36. The battle of Khanwa (1527) was fought between Babur and which ruler?
  1. Rana Sanga
  2. Ibrahim Lodi
  3. Medini Rai
  4. Hemu

Answer: (A) Rana Sanga

The Battle of Khanwa was fought in 1527 between Babur and Rana Sanga of Mewar.

Q37. Which fundamental right cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency?
  1. Articles 20 and 21
  2. Articles 14 and 19
  3. Articles 19 and 20
  4. Articles 21 and 22

Answer: (A) Articles 20 and 21

Articles 20 (Protection in respect of conviction for offenses) and 21 (Protection of life and personal liberty) remain active during Emergency.

Q38. The Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through which of the following Indian states?
  1. Odisha
  2. Rajasthan
  3. Tripura
  4. Chhattisgarh

Answer: (A) Odisha

Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, WB, Tripura, Mizoram. It does NOT pass through Odisha.

Q39. Who was the first Indian to win an individual Gold Medal at the Olympic Games?
  1. Abhinav Bindra
  2. Neeraj Chopra
  3. K. D. Jadhav
  4. Milkha Singh

Answer: (A) Abhinav Bindra

Abhinav Bindra won gold in 10m Air Rifle event at the 2008 Beijing Olympics.

Q40. Which gas is used for artificial ripening of green fruits?
  1. Acetylene / Ethylene
  2. Methane
  3. Ethane
  4. Carbon Dioxide

Answer: (A) Acetylene / Ethylene

Ethylene (and acetylene gas generated from calcium carbide) is widely used for fruit ripening.

Q41. The tax on goods and services (GST) was introduced in India via which Constitutional Amendment Act?
  1. 101st Amendment Act
  2. 100th Amendment Act
  3. 102nd Amendment Act
  4. 103rd Amendment Act

Answer: (A) 101st Amendment Act

The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 introduced the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India.

Q42. Which alloy consists mainly of Copper and Zinc?
  1. Brass
  2. Bronze
  3. Solder
  4. German Silver

Answer: (A) Brass

Brass is an alloy of Copper and Zinc. (Bronze is Copper and Tin).

Q43. The 'Ramsar Convention' is associated with the conservation of:
  1. Wetlands
  2. Forests
  3. Ozone Layer
  4. Endangered Species

Answer: (A) Wetlands

The Ramsar Convention (1971) is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.

Q44. Who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics for explaining the Photoelectric Effect?
  1. Albert Einstein
  2. Niels Bohr
  3. Max Planck
  4. Ernest Rutherford

Answer: (A) Albert Einstein

Albert Einstein received the 1921 Nobel Prize in Physics for his explanation of the law of the photoelectric effect.

Q45. Which Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) Article defines the duties and powers of CAG in the Indian Constitution?
  1. Article 149
  2. Article 148
  3. Article 150
  4. Article 151

Answer: (A) Article 149

Article 148 establishes CAG appointment, while Article 149 details duties and powers of CAG.

Q46. If x + 1/x = 3, find the value of x^5 + 1/x^5.
  1. 123
  2. 126
  3. 120
  4. 110

Answer: (A) 123

x² + 1/x² = 3² - 2 = 7. x³ + 1/x³ = 3³ - 3(3) = 18. (x² + 1/x²)(x³ + 1/x³) = x^5 + 1/x^5 + (x + 1/x) => 7 × 18 = x^5 + 1/x^5 + 3 => 126 - 3 = 123.

Q47. A sum of ₹12,000 amounts to ₹15,972 in 3 years at a certain rate percent per annum compound interest, compounded annually. What will be the compound interest on the same sum for 2 years at the same rate?
  1. ₹2,520
  2. ₹2,640
  3. ₹2,400
  4. ₹2,760

Answer: (A) ₹2,520

15972 / 12000 = 1.331 = (1 + r/100)³. So (1 + r/100) = 1.1 => r = 10%. CI for 2 yrs at 10% on 12000 = 12000 × 0.21 = ₹2,520.

Q48. A tap can fill a tank in 12 hours and another tap can empty it in 18 hours. If both taps are opened together, in how many hours will the tank be completely filled?
  1. 36 hours
  2. 30 hours
  3. 24 hours
  4. 42 hours

Answer: (A) 36 hours

Net rate = 1/12 - 1/18 = (3 - 2)/36 = 1/36. So time taken = 36 hours.

Q49. A trader marks his goods 30% above cost price and allows a discount of 15%. What is his profit percentage?
  1. 10.5%
  2. 12%
  3. 11.5%
  4. 15%

Answer: (A) 10.5%

Net profit % = 30 - 15 - (30×15)/100 = 15 - 4.5 = 10.5%.

Q50. If tan θ + sec θ = 3 (where θ is an acute angle), find the value of sin θ.
  1. 4/5
  2. 3/5
  3. 5/13
  4. 12/13

Answer: (A) 4/5

sec θ + tan θ = 3 => sec θ - tan θ = 1/3. Adding both: 2 sec θ = 10/3 => sec θ = 5/3 => cos θ = 3/5 => sin θ = 4/5.

Q51. Two circles of radii 8 cm and 3 cm have their centres 13 cm apart. What is the length of the direct common tangent?
  1. 12 cm
  2. 10 cm
  3. 11 cm
  4. 14 cm

Answer: (A) 12 cm

Length of Direct Common Tangent = √(d² - (R - r)²) = √(13² - (8 - 3)²) = √(169 - 25) = √144 = 12 cm.

Q52. The average run rate of a cricket team in 20 overs is 6.5. If 40 runs are scored in the next 5 overs, what is the new average run rate per over?
  1. 6.8
  2. 7.0
  3. 6.6
  4. 7.2

Answer: (A) 6.8

Total runs in 20 overs = 20 × 6.5 = 130. Runs in 25 overs = 130 + 40 = 170. New average = 170 / 25 = 6.8.

Q53. A train 240 metres long passes a platform of length 360 metres in 30 seconds. Find the speed of the train in km/h.
  1. 72 km/h
  2. 54 km/h
  3. 60 km/h
  4. 80 km/h

Answer: (A) 72 km/h

Speed = Total Distance / Time = (240 + 360) / 30 = 600 / 30 = 20 m/s. In km/h = 20 × (18/5) = 72 km/h.

Q54. What is the unit digit of (2137)^753?
  1. 7
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. 9

Answer: (A) 7

Cyclicity of 7 is 4. Power 753 mod 4 = 1. So 7¹ = 7.

Q55. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a motorist reduce petrol consumption so as to keep expenditure constant?
  1. 20%
  2. 25%
  3. 15%
  4. 18%

Answer: (A) 20%

Reduction % = [r / (100 + r)] × 100 = [25 / 125] × 100 = 20%.

Q56. In a triangle ABC, the bisectors of ∠B and ∠C meet at point O inside the triangle. If ∠A = 70°, find the measure of ∠BOC.
  1. 125°
  2. 110°
  3. 135°
  4. 140°

Answer: (A) 125°

∠BOC = 90° + ∠A/2 = 90° + 70°/2 = 90° + 35° = 125°.

Q57. If x^4 + 1/x^4 = 119, find the value of x^3 - 1/x^3 (where x > 0).
  1. 36
  2. 27
  3. 18
  4. 45

Answer: (A) 36

x² + 1/x² = √(119 + 2) = 11. x - 1/x = √(11 - 2) = 3. x³ - 1/x³ = 3³ + 3(3) = 27 + 9 = 36.

Q58. Find the LCM of 2/3, 4/9, and 5/6.
  1. 20/3
  2. 10/3
  3. 20/9
  4. 40/3

Answer: (A) 20/3

LCM of fractions = LCM of numerators / HCF of denominators. LCM(2, 4, 5) = 20. HCF(3, 9, 6) = 3. LCM = 20/3.

Q59. If sin A + cos A = √2 cos A, find the value of cos A - sin A.
  1. √2 sin A
  2. √2 cos A
  3. 1/√2 sin A
  4. sin A

Answer: (A) √2 sin A

Squaring and adding identities gives (cos A - sin A) = √2 sin A.

Q60. A shopkeeper sells two items for ₹990 each. On one he gains 10% and on the other he loses 10%. What is his overall gain or loss percentage?
  1. 1% loss
  2. 1% gain
  3. 2% loss
  4. No profit no loss

Answer: (A) 1% loss

When SP is same for both items, net loss % = x²/100 = 10²/100 = 1% loss.

Q61. Two numbers are in the ratio 3 : 5. If 9 is subtracted from each, the new numbers are in the ratio 12 : 23. What is the smaller number?
  1. 33
  2. 44
  3. 55
  4. 22

Answer: (A) 33

(3x - 9)/(5x - 9) = 12/23 => 69x - 207 = 60x - 108 => 9x = 99 => x = 11. Smaller number = 3(11) = 33.

Q62. A solid metallic sphere of radius 6 cm is melted and recast into small solid spheres of radius 2 cm each. How many such small spheres are formed?
  1. 27
  2. 18
  3. 36
  4. 9

Answer: (A) 27

Number = V1 / V2 = (4/3 π R³) / (4/3 π r³) = R³ / r³ = 6³ / 2³ = 216 / 8 = 27.

Q63. A sum of money double itself in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become four times itself at the same rate of interest?
  1. 24 years
  2. 16 years
  3. 32 years
  4. 20 years

Answer: (A) 24 years

To double itself, SI = P in 8 years. To become 4 times, SI = 3P. Time needed = 3 × 8 = 24 years.

Q64. Find the remainder when 7^103 is divided by 25.
  1. 18
  2. 7
  3. 24
  4. 12

Answer: (A) 18

7¹ = 7, 7² = 49 ≡ -1 (mod 25). 7^103 = (7²)^51 × 7 ≡ (-1)^51 × 7 = -7 ≡ 18 (mod 25).

Q65. A sum of ₹8000 is divided into two parts such that simple interest on the first part at 6% p.a. for 4 years equals simple interest on the second part at 8% p.a. for 3 years. Find the first part.
  1. ₹4000
  2. ₹3500
  3. ₹4500
  4. ₹5000

Answer: (A) ₹4000

P1 × 6 × 4 = P2 × 8 × 3 => 24 P1 = 24 P2 => P1 = P2. Since total is 8000, P1 = ₹4000.

Q66. A boat covers 24 km upstream and 36 km downstream in 6 hours. It covers 36 km upstream and 24 km downstream in 6.5 hours. What is the speed of the current?
  1. 2 km/h
  2. 3 km/h
  3. 4 km/h
  4. 1.5 km/h

Answer: (A) 2 km/h

Let 1/u = x and 1/v = y. 24x + 36y = 6 and 36x + 24y = 6.5. Solving gives u (upstream) = 8 km/h, v (downstream) = 12 km/h. Speed of current = (12 - 8) / 2 = 2 km/h.

Q67. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point on the ground is 30°. On walking 40 m towards the tower, the angle becomes 60°. Find the height of the tower.
  1. 20√3 m
  2. 40√3 m
  3. 20 m
  4. 30√3 m

Answer: (A) 20√3 m

Height h = d / (cot θ1 - cot θ2) = 40 / (cot 30° - cot 60°) = 40 / (√3 - 1/√3) = 40 / (2/√3) = 20√3 m.

Q68. If the mean of x, x+3, x+6, x+9, and x+12 is 15, find the median of these observations.
  1. 15
  2. 12
  3. 18
  4. 9

Answer: (A) 15

Mean = (5x + 30)/5 = x + 6 = 15 => x = 9. The median (3rd term) is x + 6 = 15.

Q69. Select the word with the correct spelling:
  1. Manoeuvre
  2. Maneuver
  3. Maneuvre
  4. Manouvre

Answer: (A) Manoeuvre

'Manoeuvre' is the standard British spelling widely accepted in official exams.

Q70. Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the word: 'OBSEQUIOUS'
  1. Servile
  2. Arrogant
  3. Domineering
  4. Assertive

Answer: (A) Servile

'Obsequious' means excessively submissive or eager to please (servile, sycophantic).

Q71. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word: 'EPHEMERAL'
  1. Perpetual
  2. Transient
  3. Fleeting
  4. Evanescent

Answer: (A) Perpetual

'Ephemeral' means lasting for a very short time. 'Perpetual' means lasting forever.

Q72. Identify the segment containing a grammatical error: 'Scarcely had the teacher entered the classroom when the students stood up.'
  1. No error
  2. Scarcely had
  3. entered the classroom
  4. when the students stood up

Answer: (A) No error

The sentence strictly follows the correct grammar structure 'Scarcely had + subject + V3 ... when ...'. Thus, there is no error.

Q73. Fill in the blank: 'He is addicted to gambling and has ruined his family, ___?'
  1. hasn't he
  2. isn't he
  3. didn't he
  4. doesn't he

Answer: (B) isn't he

The primary clause uses 'is' as the principal auxiliary ('He is addicted...'), so the correct question tag is 'isn't he?'.

Q74. Convert into Passive Voice: 'The authority is considering his application for promotion.'
  1. His application for promotion is being considered by the authority.
  2. His application for promotion was considered by the authority.
  3. His application for promotion has been considered by the authority.
  4. His application for promotion is considered by the authority.

Answer: (A) His application for promotion is being considered by the authority.

Present continuous active (is considering) changes to passive form (is being considered).

Q75. Convert into Indirect Speech: She said to me, 'Where have you deposited the documents?'
  1. She asked me where I had deposited the documents.
  2. She asked me where have I deposited the documents.
  3. She inquired me where I deposited the documents.
  4. She asked where had I deposited the documents.

Answer: (A) She asked me where I had deposited the documents.

Present perfect ('have deposited') changes to past perfect ('had deposited'), and question form becomes assertive structure ('where I had deposited').

Q76. Select the correct one-word substitution: 'A person who hates or distrusts humankind.'
  1. Misanthrope
  2. Misogynist
  3. Philanthropist
  4. Altruist

Answer: (A) Misanthrope

A 'misanthrope' is a person who dislikes humankind and avoids human society.

Q77. Select the correct meaning of the idiom: 'To burn the candle at both ends'
  1. To exhaust oneself by doing too much late at night and early in the morning
  2. To spend money extravagantly
  3. To work very slowly and carefully
  4. To be caught between two difficulties

Answer: (A) To exhaust oneself by doing too much late at night and early in the morning

'To burn the candle at both ends' means to work excessively hard without taking rest.

Q78. Identify the correctly spelled word:
  1. Conscientious
  2. Conscientous
  3. Conscienteous
  4. Conscintious

Answer: (A) Conscientious

'Conscientious' is the correct spelling, meaning wishing to do what is right.

Q79. Improve the underlined part: 'If he **had worked** hard, he would pass the examination.'
  1. would have passed
  2. will pass
  3. had passed
  4. No improvement

Answer: (A) would have passed

Third conditional rule: If + past perfect (had worked) ... would have + V3 (would have passed).

Q80. Select the most appropriate SYNONYM of the word: 'INDEFATIGABLE'
  1. Tireless
  2. Sluggish
  3. Lethargic
  4. Weary

Answer: (A) Tireless

'Indefatigable' means persisting tirelessly.

Q81. Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the word: 'ACQUIESCE'
  1. Dissent
  2. Comply
  3. Assent
  4. Concur

Answer: (A) Dissent

'Acquiesce' means to accept something reluctantly but without protest. 'Dissent' means to express disagreement.

Q82. Identify the error in the sentence: 'The committee have issued its unanimous verdict on the matter.'
  1. have issued
  2. its unanimous verdict
  3. on the matter
  4. The committee

Answer: (A) have issued

When a collective noun ('committee') acts as a single unified unit ('unanimous verdict'), it takes a singular verb ('has issued').

Q83. Choose the substitute word: 'Extreme or irrational fear of confined or enclosed places.'
  1. Claustrophobia
  2. Acrophobia
  3. Agoraphobia
  4. Hydrophobia

Answer: (A) Claustrophobia

Claustrophobia is the fear of confined spaces.

Q84. Rearrange the jumbled parts: P: to global security Q: climate change R: poses a severe threat S: and economic stability
  1. Q-R-P-S
  2. Q-P-R-S
  3. P-Q-R-S
  4. R-Q-P-S

Answer: (A) Q-R-P-S

The logical sequence is 'Climate change (Q) poses a severe threat (R) to global security (P) and economic stability (S)'.

Q85. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition: 'She is proficient ___ solving complex logical problems.'
  1. in
  2. at
  3. with
  4. on

Answer: (A) in

The adjective 'proficient' is followed by the preposition 'in'.

Q86. Select the correct meaning of the idiom: 'To throw in the towel'
  1. To admit defeat or stop trying
  2. To start a fight
  3. To clean something thoroughly
  4. To offer assistance

Answer: (A) To admit defeat or stop trying

'Throw in the towel' originated in boxing and means to surrender or accept defeat.

Q87. Select the word with the INCORRECT spelling:
  1. Hiearchy
  2. Bureaucracy
  3. Hypocrisy
  4. Adolescence

Answer: (A) Hiearchy

Incorrect spelling: 'Hiearchy'. Correct spelling is 'Hierarchy'.

Q88. Improve the sentence: 'No sooner did he see the police **when he fled** away.'
  1. than he fled
  2. then he fled
  3. when he had fled
  4. No improvement

Answer: (A) than he fled

'No sooner' is always paired with 'than'. Correct form: 'than he fled'.

Q89. Select the correct ANTONYM of: 'PERSHICACIOUS'
  1. Dull-witted
  2. Astute
  3. Shrewd
  4. Discerning

Answer: (A) Dull-witted

'Perspicacious' means having a ready insight into and understanding of things (astute). Antonym is 'dull-witted'.

Q90. Fill in the blank: 'The doctor advised him to abstention ___ alcohol.'
  1. from
  2. to
  3. against
  4. with

Answer: (A) from

'Abstain' or 'abstention' takes the preposition 'from'.

Q91. Identify the segment containing an error: 'One of the main reason for his failure is the lack of discipline.'
  1. One of the main reason
  2. for his failure
  3. is the lack
  4. of discipline

Answer: (A) One of the main reason

'One of the' must be followed by a plural noun ('reasons'). Correct: 'One of the main reasons'.

Q92. Convert into Passive Voice: 'Someone stole my bicycle yesterday.'
  1. My bicycle was stolen yesterday.
  2. My bicycle had been stolen yesterday.
  3. My bicycle is stolen yesterday.
  4. My bicycle was stole yesterday.

Answer: (A) My bicycle was stolen yesterday.

Simple past active ('stole') becomes simple past passive ('was stolen'). Indefinite agent 'someone' is omitted.

Q93. Select the correct one-word substitution: 'A solution or remedy for all difficulties or diseases.'
  1. Panacea
  2. Elixir
  3. Placebo
  4. Antidote

Answer: (A) Panacea

A 'panacea' is a universal cure-all or remedy for all diseases/difficulties.