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SSC CGL Tier 1 Full Mock Test: Practice Test 02

Question paper with answer key. Selection Pro

Q1. If TABLE is coded as UBCMF, CHAIR is coded as:
  1. DIBJS
  2. DIBIR
  3. DHBJS
  4. EIBKT

Answer: (A) DIBJS

Every letter is shifted one position forward.

Q2. Find the next term: 3, 8, 18, 38, 78, ?
  1. 156
  2. 158
  3. 160
  4. 162

Answer: (B) 158

Each term is twice the previous term plus 2.

Q3. Odd one out:
  1. Triangle
  2. Square
  3. Circle
  4. Pentagon

Answer: (C) Circle

Circle has no straight sides; the others are polygons.

Q4. A is brother of B, C is sister of B and D is father of A. D is C’s:
  1. Brother
  2. Father
  3. Uncle
  4. Grandfather

Answer: (B) Father

A and C are siblings and D is A’s father.

Q5. A person walks 8 km north, 6 km east and 8 km south. Distance from start?
  1. 6 km
  2. 8 km
  3. 14 km
  4. 22 km

Answer: (A) 6 km

North and south movements cancel, leaving 6 km east.

Q6. If MONDAY is coded as 123456, then MON is:
  1. 123
  2. 124
  3. 126
  4. 134

Answer: (A) 123

M,O,N correspond to the first three coded positions.

Q7. All pens are books. Some books are papers. Which conclusion follows?
  1. Only I: Some pens are papers
  2. Only II: All pens are books
  3. Both
  4. Neither

Answer: (B) Only II: All pens are books

Only the second conclusion is directly given.

Q8. Next term: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?
  1. EV
  2. FU
  3. EW
  4. FV

Answer: (A) EV

First letters increase and second letters decrease.

Q9. If 1 January is Monday in a non-leap year, 1 March is:
  1. Tuesday
  2. Wednesday
  3. Thursday
  4. Friday

Answer: (C) Thursday

January plus February gives 59 days; 59 mod 7 = 3, so Monday + 3 = Thursday.

Q10. Five persons P,Q,R,S,T sit in a row. Q is immediately right of P and R immediately left of T. Which is possible?
  1. S P Q R T
  2. P Q S T R
  3. R T P S Q
  4. T R P Q S

Answer: (A) S P Q R T

Only S-P-Q-R-T satisfies both adjacency conditions.

Q11. Find the next term: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
  1. 40
  2. 42
  3. 44
  4. 46

Answer: (B) 42

Terms are n(n+1); next is 6×7 = 42.

Q12. If SOUTH is TPVUI, NORTH is:
  1. OPSUI
  2. OPSUH
  3. OQSTI
  4. NPSUI

Answer: (A) OPSUI

Every letter is shifted one position forward.

Q13. A cube painted on all faces is cut into 27 equal cubes. Cubes with exactly two painted faces?
  1. 8
  2. 12
  3. 16
  4. 24

Answer: (B) 12

For a 3×3×3 cube, the edge-centre cubes number 12.

Q14. Find ?: 5, 11, 23, 47, ?
  1. 93
  2. 94
  3. 95
  4. 96

Answer: (C) 95

Each term is 2×previous + 1.

Q15. If vowels of EDUCATION are alphabetically arranged, the first letter is:
  1. A
  2. E
  3. D
  4. U

Answer: (A) A

The first vowel position becomes A after sorting vowels alphabetically.

Q16. A clock shows 3:20. Smaller angle between hands is:
  1. 10°
  2. 20°
  3. 30°
  4. 40°

Answer: (B) 20°

Minute hand = 120° and hour hand = 100°; difference = 20°.

Q17. Ravi is 12th from top and 18th from bottom. Total students?
  1. 28
  2. 29
  3. 30
  4. 31

Answer: (B) 29

Total = 12 + 18 − 1 = 29.

Q18. If + means ÷, − means ×, × means + and ÷ means −, find 18 + 3 − 2.
  1. 1
  2. 6
  3. 12
  4. 18

Answer: (C) 12

It becomes 18 ÷ 3 × 2 = 12.

Q19. Book : Author :: Painting : ?
  1. Painter
  2. Gallery
  3. Colour
  4. Brush

Answer: (A) Painter

An author creates a book; a painter creates a painting.

Q20. Facing west, a person turns 90° clockwise then 180° anticlockwise. Final direction?
  1. North
  2. South
  3. East
  4. West

Answer: (B) South

West → North → South.

Q21. Next term: 4, 9, 19, 39, ?
  1. 77
  2. 78
  3. 79
  4. 80

Answer: (C) 79

Each term is 2×previous + 1.

Q22. Correct relation among Doctors, Humans and Engineers:
  1. Doctors and Engineers are subsets of Humans and may overlap
  2. All Humans are Doctors
  3. Doctors are disjoint from Humans
  4. Engineers contain all Humans

Answer: (A) Doctors and Engineers are subsets of Humans and may overlap

Both professions are subsets of humans and may overlap.

Q23. Alphabetically arrange COMPUTER. The fourth letter is:
  1. M
  2. O
  3. P
  4. R

Answer: (B) O

C,E,M,O,P,R,T,U; fourth is O.

Q24. A is taller than B but shorter than C. D is shorter than B but taller than E. Tallest?
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

Answer: (C) C

Order is C > A > B > D > E.

Q25. Some cars are buses. All buses are trains. Conclusion: Some cars are trains.
  1. Follows
  2. Does not follow
  3. Both true and false
  4. Cannot be decided

Answer: (A) Follows

Cars that are buses must also be trains.

Q26. The Constitution of India was adopted on:
  1. 15 August 1947
  2. 26 November 1949
  3. 26 January 1950
  4. 24 January 1950

Answer: (B) 26 November 1949

The Constituent Assembly adopted it on 26 November 1949.

Q27. Equality before law is guaranteed by:
  1. Article 14
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 21
  4. Article 32

Answer: (A) Article 14

Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of laws.

Q28. Largest gland in the human body:
  1. Pancreas
  2. Liver
  3. Thyroid
  4. Pituitary

Answer: (B) Liver

The liver is the largest gland.

Q29. SI unit of resistance:
  1. Volt
  2. Ampere
  3. Ohm
  4. Watt

Answer: (C) Ohm

Resistance is measured in ohms.

Q30. Sorrow of Bihar is:
  1. Ganga
  2. Kosi
  3. Son
  4. Gandak

Answer: (B) Kosi

The Kosi is traditionally called the Sorrow of Bihar.

Q31. Battle of Plassey was fought in:
  1. 1757
  2. 1761
  3. 1764
  4. 1772

Answer: (A) 1757

The Battle of Plassey took place in 1757.

Q32. Founder of the Maurya Empire:
  1. Ashoka
  2. Chandragupta Maurya
  3. Bindusara
  4. Kanishka

Answer: (B) Chandragupta Maurya

Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya Empire.

Q33. Indian Green Revolution is closely associated with:
  1. M. S. Swaminathan
  2. Vikram Sarabhai
  3. Homi Bhabha
  4. Verghese Kurien

Answer: (A) M. S. Swaminathan

M. S. Swaminathan played a leading role in India’s Green Revolution.

Q34. Vitamin synthesized in skin in sunlight:
  1. A
  2. B12
  3. C
  4. D

Answer: (D) D

Sunlight enables synthesis of vitamin D in skin.

Q35. RBI headquarters:
  1. New Delhi
  2. Mumbai
  3. Kolkata
  4. Chennai

Answer: (B) Mumbai

The RBI central office is in Mumbai.

Q36. Longest river flowing entirely within India:
  1. Ganga
  2. Godavari
  3. Yamuna
  4. Narmada

Answer: (B) Godavari

Godavari is the longest river whose course lies entirely within India.

Q37. Repo Rate is a tool of:
  1. Fiscal policy
  2. Monetary policy
  3. Trade policy
  4. Industrial policy

Answer: (B) Monetary policy

Repo rate is a monetary-policy instrument.

Q38. Planet with shortest revolution period:
  1. Venus
  2. Earth
  3. Mercury
  4. Mars

Answer: (C) Mercury

Mercury takes about 88 Earth days to orbit the Sun.

Q39. Study of fungi is called:
  1. Mycology
  2. Ecology
  3. Entomology
  4. Ornithology

Answer: (A) Mycology

Mycology is the study of fungi.

Q40. Author of The Discovery of India:
  1. Mahatma Gandhi
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. B. R. Ambedkar
  4. S. Radhakrishnan

Answer: (B) Jawaharlal Nehru

Jawaharlal Nehru wrote The Discovery of India.

Q41. Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?
  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9

Answer: (C) 8

It passes through eight Indian states.

Q42. Metal liquid at room temperature:
  1. Sodium
  2. Mercury
  3. Aluminium
  4. Copper

Answer: (B) Mercury

Mercury is liquid at ordinary room temperature.

Q43. First Indian satellite:
  1. INSAT-1A
  2. Aryabhata
  3. Rohini
  4. Bhaskara-I

Answer: (B) Aryabhata

Aryabhata was India’s first satellite, launched in 1975.

Q44. Fundamental Duties were added by the:
  1. 42nd Amendment
  2. 44th Amendment
  3. 52nd Amendment
  4. 73rd Amendment

Answer: (A) 42nd Amendment

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added Fundamental Duties.

Q45. Soil especially suitable for cotton:
  1. Alluvial
  2. Black
  3. Laterite
  4. Red

Answer: (B) Black

Black soil has high moisture-retention capacity and suits cotton.

Q46. Washing soda formula:
  1. NaHCO3
  2. Na2CO3·10H2O
  3. CaCO3
  4. NaOH

Answer: (B) Na2CO3·10H2O

Washing soda is sodium carbonate decahydrate.

Q47. Father of the Indian Constitution is commonly called:
  1. Rajendra Prasad
  2. B. R. Ambedkar
  3. Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. Sardar Patel

Answer: (B) B. R. Ambedkar

B. R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee.

Q48. Unit of frequency:
  1. Joule
  2. Hertz
  3. Newton
  4. Pascal

Answer: (B) Hertz

Frequency is measured in hertz (Hz).

Q49. Buland Darwaza was built by:
  1. Akbar
  2. Shah Jahan
  3. Aurangzeb
  4. Humayun

Answer: (A) Akbar

Akbar built it at Fatehpur Sikri.

Q50. National income estimates are compiled by:
  1. NITI Aayog
  2. National Statistical Office
  3. RBI
  4. Finance Commission

Answer: (B) National Statistical Office

The National Statistical Office compiles national income estimates.

Q51. 20% of a number is 48. The number is:
  1. 200
  2. 220
  3. 240
  4. 260

Answer: (C) 240

48 ÷ 0.20 = 240.

Q52. An article is marked 40% above cost and sold at 10% discount. Profit %:
  1. 24%
  2. 26%
  3. 30%
  4. 32%

Answer: (B) 26%

SP = 1.40×0.90 CP = 1.26 CP, hence 26% profit.

Q53. Average of 8 numbers is 15. Replacing 22 by 30 gives new average:
  1. 15
  2. 16
  3. 17
  4. 18

Answer: (B) 16

Total rises by 8; average rises by 8/8 = 1, so 16.

Q54. A 180 m train crosses a pole in 9 s. Speed:
  1. 60 km/h
  2. 72 km/h
  3. 80 km/h
  4. 90 km/h

Answer: (B) 72 km/h

180/9 = 20 m/s = 72 km/h.

Q55. A:B=3:5 and B:C=10:7. A:C is:
  1. 3:7
  2. 6:7
  3. 7:6
  4. 5:7

Answer: (B) 6:7

Scale 3:5 to 6:10; hence A:C = 6:7.

Q56. SI on ₹5000 at 8% for 3 years:
  1. ₹1000
  2. ₹1200
  3. ₹1400
  4. ₹1600

Answer: (B) ₹1200

SI = 5000×8×3/100 = ₹1200.

Q57. A takes 12 days and B 18 days. Together:
  1. 6.5 days
  2. 7.2 days
  3. 8 days
  4. 9 days

Answer: (B) 7.2 days

Rate = 1/12+1/18=5/36, so time=36/5=7.2 days.

Q58. HCF of 84 and 126:
  1. 21
  2. 28
  3. 42
  4. 63

Answer: (C) 42

Common prime factors give HCF 42.

Q59. If x+1/x=5, x²+1/x²=
  1. 21
  2. 23
  3. 25
  4. 27

Answer: (B) 23

Squaring gives x²+2+1/x²=25, hence 23.

Q60. Area of circle radius 7 cm, π=22/7:
  1. 144
  2. 154
  3. 164
  4. 176

Answer: (B) 154

Area = 22/7×49 = 154 cm².

Q61. ₹1210 is amount after 2 years at 10% compound interest. Principal:
  1. ₹900
  2. ₹1000
  3. ₹1100
  4. ₹1200

Answer: (B) ₹1000

P(1.1)^2=1210, so P=₹1000.

Q62. 3x−7=2x+5. x=
  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 13

Answer: (C) 12

x=12.

Q63. Rectangle perimeter 50 cm, length 15 cm. Area:
  1. 120
  2. 140
  3. 150
  4. 160

Answer: (C) 150

Breadth=10 cm; area=150 cm².

Q64. Increase by 25% then decrease by 20%. Net change:
  1. 0%
  2. 5% increase
  3. 5% decrease
  4. 10% increase

Answer: (A) 0%

1.25×0.80=1, so no net change.

Q65. For acute θ, sinθ=3/5. cosθ=
  1. 3/5
  2. 4/5
  3. 5/4
  4. 1/5

Answer: (B) 4/5

Using the 3-4-5 triangle, cosθ=4/5.

Q66. 2^5×2^3/2^4=
  1. 8
  2. 12
  3. 16
  4. 32

Answer: (C) 16

2^(5+3−4)=2^4=16.

Q67. Milk:water=5:2. Add 14 L water and ratio becomes 5:4. Original milk:
  1. 30 L
  2. 35 L
  3. 40 L
  4. 45 L

Answer: (B) 35 L

Let amounts be 5x,2x. 5x/(2x+14)=5/4 gives x=7; milk=35 L.

Q68. Least number leaving remainder 5 when divided by 12,15,20:
  1. 55
  2. 65
  3. 125
  4. 185

Answer: (B) 65

LCM=60; 60+5=65.

Q69. At 12% loss an article is sold. For 3% gain it must be sold ₹180 more. CP:
  1. ₹1000
  2. ₹1200
  3. ₹1500
  4. ₹1800

Answer: (B) ₹1200

15% of CP = ₹180, so CP=₹1200.

Q70. Roots of x²−9x+20=0:
  1. 2,10
  2. 4,5
  3. 3,6
  4. 1,20

Answer: (B) 4,5

Factorization gives (x−4)(x−5).

Q71. If radius of a sphere is doubled, volume becomes:
  1. 2 times
  2. 4 times
  3. 6 times
  4. 8 times

Answer: (D) 8 times

Volume ∝ r³, so it becomes 8 times.

Q72. Boat goes 30 km downstream in 2 h and upstream in 3 h. Stream speed:
  1. 2
  2. 2.5
  3. 3
  4. 5

Answer: (B) 2.5

Downstream=15, upstream=10; stream=(15−10)/2=2.5 km/h.

Q73. Median of 3,7,9,12,15,18,20:
  1. 9
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 15

Answer: (C) 12

The fourth ordered observation is 12.

Q74. tan A=1/2 and tan B=1/3. tan(A+B)=
  1. 1/5
  2. 5/6
  3. 1
  4. 2

Answer: (C) 1

(1/2+1/3)/(1−1/6)=1.

Q75. Diagonal of square is 10√2 cm. Area:
  1. 50
  2. 100
  3. 150
  4. 200

Answer: (B) 100

Side=10 cm; area=100 cm².

Q76. Correct spelling:
  1. Accomodation
  2. Accommodation
  3. Acommodation
  4. Accommadation

Answer: (B) Accommodation

Accommodation is the correct spelling.

Q77. Synonym of Abundant:
  1. Scarce
  2. Plentiful
  3. Tiny
  4. Weak

Answer: (B) Plentiful

Abundant means plentiful.

Q78. Antonym of Transparent:
  1. Clear
  2. Obvious
  3. Opaque
  4. Visible

Answer: (C) Opaque

Opaque is opposite to transparent.

Q79. Error: Neither of the boys have completed their homework.
  1. Neither
  2. of the boys
  3. have completed
  4. their homework

Answer: (C) have completed

Use singular “has completed” with neither.

Q80. She has been working here ___ 2022.
  1. for
  2. since
  3. from
  4. by

Answer: (B) since

Since is used with a specific starting point.

Q81. Passive: The manager will review the report.
  1. The report will be reviewed by the manager.
  2. The report is reviewed by the manager.
  3. The report was reviewed by the manager.
  4. The manager will be reviewed by the report.

Answer: (A) The report will be reviewed by the manager.

Future simple passive uses will be + past participle.

Q82. Indirect speech: He said, “I am busy.”
  1. He said that I am busy.
  2. He said that he was busy.
  3. He says that he was busy.
  4. He said that he is busy.

Answer: (B) He said that he was busy.

The pronoun and tense change appropriately in reported speech.

Q83. One who knows many languages:
  1. Linguist
  2. Polyglot
  3. Orator
  4. Monk

Answer: (B) Polyglot

Polyglot means a person who knows several languages.

Q84. Meaning of “Break the ice”:
  1. Start a conversation
  2. Destroy something
  3. Become angry
  4. Stop working

Answer: (A) Start a conversation

It means to initiate friendly interaction.

Q85. Correct spelling:
  1. Privilege
  2. Privelege
  3. Priviledge
  4. Privillage

Answer: (A) Privilege

Privilege is the correct spelling.

Q86. If I ___ rich, I would travel the world.
  1. am
  2. was
  3. were
  4. will be

Answer: (C) were

Were is standard in this hypothetical conditional.

Q87. Synonym of Candid:
  1. Frank
  2. Secretive
  3. Clever
  4. Rude

Answer: (A) Frank

Candid means frank and straightforward.

Q88. Antonym of Diligent:
  1. Active
  2. Hardworking
  3. Careless
  4. Regular

Answer: (C) Careless

Careless is opposite to diligent.

Q89. Error: Each of the students were given a certificate.
  1. Each
  2. of the students
  3. were given
  4. a certificate

Answer: (C) were given

Each takes a singular verb: was given.

Q90. Correct improvement: He is senior than me.
  1. senior to me
  2. senior from me
  3. more senior than me
  4. no improvement

Answer: (A) senior to me

The standard construction is senior to.

Q91. Arrange: P because it was raining; Q we stayed at home; R heavily; S all evening.
  1. Q-P-R-S
  2. P-Q-R-S
  3. Q-R-P-S
  4. R-P-Q-S

Answer: (A) Q-P-R-S

The natural order is Q-P-R-S.

Q92. He is ___ honest man.
  1. a
  2. an
  3. the
  4. no article

Answer: (B) an

Honest begins with a vowel sound.

Q93. Meaning of benevolent:
  1. Kind and charitable
  2. Hostile
  3. Uncertain
  4. Greedy

Answer: (A) Kind and charitable

Benevolent means kindly and well-meaning.

Q94. Correct spelling:
  1. Questionaire
  2. Questionnaire
  3. Questionnair
  4. Quesstionnaire

Answer: (B) Questionnaire

Questionnaire is correct.

Q95. The train had left before we ___ the station.
  1. reach
  2. reached
  3. had reached
  4. have reached

Answer: (B) reached

The later past action uses simple past here.

Q96. Antonym of Reluctant:
  1. Unwilling
  2. Hesitant
  3. Willing
  4. Doubtful

Answer: (C) Willing

Willing is opposite to reluctant.

Q97. Synonym of Meticulous:
  1. Careless
  2. Precise
  3. Rapid
  4. Ordinary

Answer: (B) Precise

Meticulous means very careful and precise.

Q98. Error: The news are very encouraging.
  1. The
  2. news
  3. are
  4. very encouraging

Answer: (C) are

News is grammatically singular: The news is encouraging.

Q99. Passive: People speak English all over the world.
  1. English is spoken all over the world.
  2. English was spoken all over the world.
  3. English has spoken all over the world.
  4. English speaks all over the world.

Answer: (A) English is spoken all over the world.

Simple present passive is is/are + past participle.

Q100. Meaning of “A blessing in disguise”:
  1. A hidden benefit
  2. A visible danger
  3. A religious ceremony
  4. An unexpected loss

Answer: (A) A hidden benefit

It describes something that seems bad but proves beneficial.