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SSC CGL Tier 1 Full Mock Test: Practice Test 01

Question paper with answer key. Selection Pro

Q1. If in a certain code, TABLE is written as UBCMF, how is CHAIR written?
  1. DIBJS
  2. DIBIR
  3. DHBJS
  4. EIBJS

Answer: (A) DIBJS

Each letter is shifted one place forward: C→D, H→I, A→B, I→J, R→S.

Q2. Find the missing number: 3, 8, 15, 24, 35, ?
  1. 46
  2. 48
  3. 49
  4. 50

Answer: (B) 48

Differences are 5, 7, 9, 11; next difference is 13, so 35+13=48.

Q3. Book : Author :: Painting : ?
  1. Artist
  2. Gallery
  3. Colour
  4. Brush

Answer: (A) Artist

An author creates a book; an artist creates a painting.

Q4. Which number replaces the question mark? 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?
  1. 40
  2. 42
  3. 44
  4. 46

Answer: (B) 42

Terms are n(n+1): 1×2, 2×3, 3×4, 4×5, 5×6; next is 6×7=42.

Q5. A is the brother of B. C is the sister of A. D is the father of B. How is C related to D?
  1. Sister
  2. Daughter
  3. Mother
  4. Aunt

Answer: (B) Daughter

C is A's sister and A and B are siblings; D is B's father, so C is D's daughter.

Q6. If NORTH is coded as 12345 and SOUTH as 67845, which digit represents H?
  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

Answer: (C) 5

Comparing NORTH and SOUTH, common letters are O, T, H; H corresponds to the common final digit 5.

Q7. Choose the odd one out.
  1. Triangle
  2. Square
  3. Pentagon
  4. Circle

Answer: (D) Circle

Triangle, square and pentagon are polygons with straight sides; a circle is not.

Q8. A clock shows 3:00. What is the angle between its hands?
  1. 60°
  2. 90°
  3. 120°
  4. 180°

Answer: (B) 90°

At 3:00, the minute hand is at 12 and the hour hand at 3, giving 90°.

Q9. If all roses are flowers and some flowers are red, which conclusion is definitely true?
  1. All roses are red
  2. Some roses are red
  3. All roses are flowers
  4. No rose is red

Answer: (C) All roses are flowers

The first statement directly establishes that every rose is a flower.

Q10. Arrange the following words in dictionary order: 1. Scale 2. Scarf 3. Scarce 4. Scenery
  1. 1,2,3,4
  2. 3,2,1,4
  3. 4,3,2,1
  4. 3,1,2,4

Answer: (B) 3,2,1,4

Compare alphabetically: Scarce, Scarf, Scale, Scenery.

Q11. A man walks 5 km north, then 3 km east, then 5 km south. How far is he from the starting point?
  1. 2 km
  2. 3 km
  3. 5 km
  4. 8 km

Answer: (B) 3 km

North and south movements cancel; he remains 3 km east of the start.

Q12. Find the missing term: AZ, BY, CX, DW, ?
  1. EV
  2. EU
  3. FV
  4. EX

Answer: (A) EV

First letters increase A,B,C,D,E while second letters decrease Z,Y,X,W,V.

Q13. If 7 + 3 = 410, 9 + 2 = 711, then 8 + 4 = ?
  1. 412
  2. 424
  3. 436
  4. 432

Answer: (A) 412

Pattern is (difference)(sum): 7−3=4 and 7+3=10 → 410; 9−2=7 and 9+2=11 → 711. Thus 8−4=4 and 8+4=12 → 412.

Q14. Five persons P,Q,R,S,T stand in a line. P is left of Q, R is right of Q, S is left of P, and T is right of R. Who is in the middle?
  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. S

Answer: (B) Q

Order is S-P-Q-R-T, so Q is in the middle.

Q15. If MIRROR is written as RORRIM, how is COMPUTER written in the same way?
  1. RETUPMOC
  2. RETUMPOC
  3. RETUPCOMA
  4. COMPUTER

Answer: (A) RETUPMOC

The word is written in reverse order: COMPUTER → RETUPMOC.

Q16. Find the odd pair.
  1. (2,8)
  2. (3,27)
  3. (4,64)
  4. (5,100)

Answer: (D) (5,100)

In the first three pairs, the second number is the cube of the first; 5³=125, not 100.

Q17. A cube is painted on all six faces and cut into 27 equal cubes. How many small cubes have exactly two painted faces?
  1. 8
  2. 12
  3. 16
  4. 24

Answer: (B) 12

For a 3×3×3 cube, the edge-middle cubes are 12 and have exactly two painted faces.

Q18. If 1 January is Monday in a non-leap year, what day is 1 March?
  1. Wednesday
  2. Thursday
  3. Friday
  4. Saturday

Answer: (B) Thursday

January has 31 days, shifting by 3 days; February has 28 days, no shift. Monday + 3 = Thursday.

Q19. Statement: Some pens are books. All books are papers. Conclusion: Some pens are papers.
  1. Definitely true
  2. Definitely false
  3. Cannot be determined
  4. Both true and false

Answer: (A) Definitely true

The pens that are books must also be papers, so some pens are papers.

Q20. A, B, C, D and E have different heights. A is taller than B but shorter than C. D is shorter than B but taller than E. Who is tallest?
  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

Answer: (C) C

C>A>B>D>E, so C is tallest.

Q21. Complete the series: 121, 144, 169, 196, ?
  1. 215
  2. 225
  3. 234
  4. 256

Answer: (B) 225

These are 11², 12², 13², 14²; next is 15²=225.

Q22. Which Venn diagram relation best represents Doctors, Engineers and Humans?
  1. All separate
  2. Doctors and Engineers overlap, both inside Humans
  3. Doctors inside Engineers
  4. Humans inside both

Answer: (B) Doctors and Engineers overlap, both inside Humans

Doctors and engineers are both subsets of humans and may overlap.

Q23. If the letters of 'MARKET' are arranged alphabetically, which letter is third?
  1. E
  2. K
  3. M
  4. R

Answer: (B) K

Alphabetical order is A, E, K, M, R, T; the third letter is K.

Q24. A is 7th from the left and 12th from the right in a row. How many people are there?
  1. 18
  2. 19
  3. 20
  4. 21

Answer: (A) 18

Total = 7+12−1 = 18.

Q25. Find the missing number: 4, 9, 19, 39, ?
  1. 69
  2. 79
  3. 81
  4. 89

Answer: (B) 79

Each term is previous×2+1: 4→9→19→39→79.

Q26. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:
  1. 15 August 1947
  2. 26 November 1949
  3. 26 January 1950
  4. 2 October 1950

Answer: (B) 26 November 1949

The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949.

Q27. Who is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?
  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. B. R. Ambedkar
  3. Rajendra Prasad
  4. Sardar Patel

Answer: (B) B. R. Ambedkar

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar chaired the Drafting Committee and is widely known by this title.

Q28. Which Fundamental Right is guaranteed by Article 21?
  1. Right to Equality
  2. Right to Freedom of Religion
  3. Right to Life and Personal Liberty
  4. Right against Exploitation

Answer: (C) Right to Life and Personal Liberty

Article 21 protects life and personal liberty.

Q29. The Battle of Plassey was fought in:
  1. 1757
  2. 1761
  3. 1764
  4. 1857

Answer: (A) 1757

The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757.

Q30. Who founded the Maurya Empire?
  1. Ashoka
  2. Chandragupta Maurya
  3. Bindusara
  4. Harsha

Answer: (B) Chandragupta Maurya

Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya Empire.

Q31. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?
  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 8
  4. 9

Answer: (C) 8

The Tropic of Cancer passes through eight Indian states.

Q32. Which river is known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar'?
  1. Ganga
  2. Kosi
  3. Yamuna
  4. Godavari

Answer: (B) Kosi

The Kosi is popularly called the Sorrow of Bihar because of its frequent floods.

Q33. The largest planet in the Solar System is:
  1. Earth
  2. Saturn
  3. Jupiter
  4. Neptune

Answer: (C) Jupiter

Jupiter is the largest planet in the Solar System.

Q34. The SI unit of electric resistance is:
  1. Volt
  2. Ampere
  3. Ohm
  4. Watt

Answer: (C) Ohm

Electrical resistance is measured in ohms (Ω).

Q35. Vitamin C deficiency causes:
  1. Rickets
  2. Scurvy
  3. Beriberi
  4. Night blindness

Answer: (B) Scurvy

Scurvy results from vitamin C deficiency.

Q36. Photosynthesis mainly occurs in which cell organelle?
  1. Nucleus
  2. Mitochondria
  3. Chloroplast
  4. Ribosome

Answer: (C) Chloroplast

Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll and are the main site of photosynthesis.

Q37. The Green Revolution in India is strongly associated with:
  1. M. S. Swaminathan
  2. Homi Bhabha
  3. Vikram Sarabhai
  4. C. V. Raman

Answer: (A) M. S. Swaminathan

M. S. Swaminathan played a major role in India's Green Revolution.

Q38. Repo rate is the rate at which:
  1. Banks lend to customers
  2. RBI lends to commercial banks
  3. Customers lend to banks
  4. Government lends to RBI

Answer: (B) RBI lends to commercial banks

Repo rate is the rate at which RBI lends short-term funds to banks against eligible securities.

Q39. Which gas is most abundant in Earth's atmosphere?
  1. Oxygen
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Carbon dioxide
  4. Argon

Answer: (B) Nitrogen

Nitrogen makes up about 78% of Earth's atmosphere.

Q40. The headquarters of the United Nations is in:
  1. Geneva
  2. Paris
  3. New York
  4. Vienna

Answer: (C) New York

The UN headquarters is located in New York City.

Q41. Who wrote 'The Discovery of India'?
  1. Mahatma Gandhi
  2. Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. Rabindranath Tagore
  4. S. Radhakrishnan

Answer: (B) Jawaharlal Nehru

Jawaharlal Nehru wrote The Discovery of India.

Q42. Kathak is a classical dance form mainly associated with:
  1. North India
  2. Kerala
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Odisha

Answer: (A) North India

Kathak developed primarily in North India.

Q43. The headquarters of ISRO is located in:
  1. Hyderabad
  2. Bengaluru
  3. New Delhi
  4. Ahmedabad

Answer: (B) Bengaluru

ISRO's headquarters is in Bengaluru, Karnataka.

Q44. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?
  1. Iron
  2. Mercury
  3. Aluminium
  4. Copper

Answer: (B) Mercury

Mercury is a metal that remains liquid at ordinary room temperature.

Q45. The pH of pure water at 25°C is approximately:
  1. 0
  2. 5
  3. 7
  4. 14

Answer: (C) 7

Pure water is neutral at 25°C, with pH approximately 7.

Q46. The first session of the Indian National Congress was held in:
  1. Bombay
  2. Calcutta
  3. Madras
  4. Allahabad

Answer: (A) Bombay

The first INC session was held in Bombay in 1885 under W. C. Bonnerjee.

Q47. Which Mughal emperor built the Taj Mahal?
  1. Akbar
  2. Jahangir
  3. Shah Jahan
  4. Aurangzeb

Answer: (C) Shah Jahan

Shah Jahan commissioned the Taj Mahal.

Q48. The constitutional head of a state in India is the:
  1. Chief Minister
  2. Governor
  3. Speaker
  4. Chief Secretary

Answer: (B) Governor

The Governor is the constitutional head of an Indian state.

Q49. Which ocean is the largest?
  1. Atlantic
  2. Indian
  3. Arctic
  4. Pacific

Answer: (D) Pacific

The Pacific Ocean is the largest ocean on Earth.

Q50. The headquarters of the World Health Organization is in:
  1. Geneva
  2. Rome
  3. London
  4. Washington, D.C.

Answer: (A) Geneva

WHO headquarters is in Geneva, Switzerland.

Q51. If 25% of a number is 45, the number is:
  1. 120
  2. 150
  3. 180
  4. 200

Answer: (C) 180

Number = 45×100/25 = 180.

Q52. A sum of ₹8000 amounts to ₹9200 in 2 years at simple interest. The annual rate is:
  1. 6%
  2. 7.5%
  3. 8%
  4. 10%

Answer: (B) 7.5%

SI=1200. Rate = 1200×100/(8000×2)=7.5%.

Q53. The ratio 3:5 is equivalent to:
  1. 9:15
  2. 12:25
  3. 15:18
  4. 18:20

Answer: (A) 9:15

Multiplying both terms of 3:5 by 3 gives 9:15.

Q54. A train 180 m long crosses a pole in 12 seconds. Its speed is:
  1. 12 m/s
  2. 15 m/s
  3. 18 m/s
  4. 20 m/s

Answer: (B) 15 m/s

Speed = distance/time = 180/12 = 15 m/s.

Q55. The average of 8, 12, 15, 17 and 18 is:
  1. 12
  2. 13
  3. 14
  4. 15

Answer: (C) 14

Sum = 70; average = 70/5 = 14.

Q56. If x + 1/x = 5, then x² + 1/x² equals:
  1. 21
  2. 23
  3. 25
  4. 27

Answer: (B) 23

Squaring: x²+2+1/x²=25, so the required value is 23.

Q57. A shopkeeper buys an article for ₹500 and sells it for ₹575. Profit percentage is:
  1. 10%
  2. 12%
  3. 15%
  4. 20%

Answer: (C) 15%

Profit = ₹75; profit% = 75/500×100 = 15%.

Q58. The HCF of 84 and 126 is:
  1. 21
  2. 28
  3. 42
  4. 63

Answer: (C) 42

84=2²×3×7 and 126=2×3²×7, so HCF=2×3×7=42.

Q59. The LCM of 12, 18 and 30 is:
  1. 90
  2. 120
  3. 180
  4. 360

Answer: (C) 180

Prime factors give LCM = 2²×3²×5 = 180.

Q60. A can complete a work in 12 days and B in 18 days. Together they complete it in:
  1. 6 days
  2. 7.2 days
  3. 8 days
  4. 9 days

Answer: (B) 7.2 days

Combined rate = 1/12+1/18=5/36, so time=36/5=7.2 days.

Q61. A mixture contains milk and water in ratio 5:2. If 14 L water is added, ratio becomes 5:4. Initial quantity of milk is:
  1. 30 L
  2. 35 L
  3. 40 L
  4. 45 L

Answer: (B) 35 L

Let milk=5x, water=2x. 5x/(2x+14)=5/4 gives x=7, so milk=35 L.

Q62. The area of a circle of radius 7 cm is (π=22/7):
  1. 144 cm²
  2. 154 cm²
  3. 164 cm²
  4. 176 cm²

Answer: (B) 154 cm²

Area = πr² = 22/7×49 = 154 cm².

Q63. A right triangle has legs 6 cm and 8 cm. Its hypotenuse is:
  1. 9 cm
  2. 10 cm
  3. 12 cm
  4. 14 cm

Answer: (B) 10 cm

By Pythagoras, hypotenuse = √(36+64)=10 cm.

Q64. If sin θ = 3/5 for an acute angle, cos θ is:
  1. 2/5
  2. 3/5
  3. 4/5
  4. 5/3

Answer: (C) 4/5

Using a 3-4-5 triangle, cos θ=4/5.

Q65. The value of (2³×3²)/(2×3) is:
  1. 6
  2. 12
  3. 18
  4. 24

Answer: (B) 12

Canceling gives 2²×3 = 12.

Q66. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. Net change is:
  1. 0%
  2. 2% decrease
  3. 4% decrease
  4. 4% increase

Answer: (C) 4% decrease

Net factor = 1.2×0.8=0.96, hence 4% decrease.

Q67. If 3x−7=20, x equals:
  1. 7
  2. 8
  3. 9
  4. 10

Answer: (C) 9

3x=27, hence x=9.

Q68. The median of 3, 7, 9, 11, 15 is:
  1. 7
  2. 8
  3. 9
  4. 11

Answer: (C) 9

The middle value in the ordered five-number set is 9.

Q69. A boat travels 30 km downstream in 2 hours. If stream speed is 3 km/h, its speed in still water is:
  1. 10 km/h
  2. 12 km/h
  3. 15 km/h
  4. 18 km/h

Answer: (B) 12 km/h

Downstream speed=15 km/h; still-water speed=15−3=12 km/h.

Q70. The compound interest on ₹1000 at 10% p.a. for 2 years is:
  1. ₹200
  2. ₹210
  3. ₹220
  4. ₹240

Answer: (B) ₹210

Amount=1000×1.1²=1210; CI=₹210.

Q71. If a:b=4:7 and b:c=14:15, then a:c is:
  1. 4:15
  2. 8:15
  3. 8:21
  4. 14:15

Answer: (B) 8:15

Make b common: 4:7 = 8:14; hence a:c=8:15.

Q72. The perimeter of a square is 48 cm. Its area is:
  1. 121 cm²
  2. 144 cm²
  3. 169 cm²
  4. 196 cm²

Answer: (B) 144 cm²

Side=48/4=12 cm; area=144 cm².

Q73. A discount of 15% on a marked price of ₹2000 gives selling price:
  1. ₹1600
  2. ₹1700
  3. ₹1750
  4. ₹1800

Answer: (B) ₹1700

SP=2000×85/100=₹1700.

Q74. If the roots of x²−9x+20=0 are α and β, then αβ is:
  1. 9
  2. 20
  3. 29
  4. 81

Answer: (B) 20

For ax²+bx+c, product of roots = c/a = 20.

Q75. The value of log10(1000) is:
  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 10
  4. 100

Answer: (B) 3

10³=1000, so log10(1000)=3.

Q76. Choose the correctly spelt word.
  1. Accomodation
  2. Accommodation
  3. Acommodation
  4. Accommadation

Answer: (B) Accommodation

The correct spelling is 'Accommodation'.

Q77. Choose the synonym of 'Abundant'.
  1. Scarce
  2. Plentiful
  3. Tiny
  4. Weak

Answer: (B) Plentiful

Abundant means available in large quantities; 'plentiful' is a synonym.

Q78. Choose the antonym of 'Transparent'.
  1. Clear
  2. Obvious
  3. Opaque
  4. Visible

Answer: (C) Opaque

Opaque means not allowing light through and is opposite to transparent.

Q79. Fill in the blank: She is good ___ mathematics.
  1. in
  2. at
  3. on
  4. for

Answer: (B) at

The standard expression is 'good at mathematics'.

Q80. Choose the correctly improved sentence: 'He do not know the answer.'
  1. He does not know the answer.
  2. He did not knows the answer.
  3. He do not knows the answer.
  4. He does not knew the answer.

Answer: (A) He does not know the answer.

With singular subject 'He', the auxiliary is 'does', followed by the base verb 'know'.

Q81. One-word substitution: A person who knows many languages.
  1. Polyglot
  2. Monk
  3. Orator
  4. Novice

Answer: (A) Polyglot

A polyglot is a person who knows or uses several languages.

Q82. Choose the passive voice: 'The committee approved the proposal.'
  1. The proposal approved the committee.
  2. The proposal was approved by the committee.
  3. The committee was approved by the proposal.
  4. The proposal is approving the committee.

Answer: (B) The proposal was approved by the committee.

Simple past active becomes simple past passive: was/were + past participle.

Q83. Choose the indirect speech: He said, 'I am tired.'
  1. He said that I am tired.
  2. He said that he was tired.
  3. He says that he was tired.
  4. He said that he is tired.

Answer: (B) He said that he was tired.

In reported speech with a past reporting verb, 'am' changes to 'was' and 'I' to 'he'.

Q84. Identify the error: 'Each of the boys have a book.'
  1. Each
  2. of the boys
  3. have
  4. a book

Answer: (C) have

'Each' is singular, so the verb should be 'has'.

Q85. Choose the correct article: He is ___ honest man.
  1. a
  2. an
  3. the
  4. no article

Answer: (B) an

'Honest' begins with a vowel sound, so 'an' is used.

Q86. Choose the synonym of 'Reluctant'.
  1. Willing
  2. Unwilling
  3. Certain
  4. Eager

Answer: (B) Unwilling

Reluctant means unwilling or hesitant.

Q87. Choose the antonym of 'Expand'.
  1. Increase
  2. Extend
  3. Contract
  4. Enlarge

Answer: (C) Contract

Contract means to become smaller, opposite to expand.

Q88. Fill in the blank: Neither Ram nor his friends ___ present.
  1. was
  2. were
  3. is
  4. has

Answer: (B) were

With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject 'friends', which is plural.

Q89. Choose the correct spelling.
  1. Privilege
  2. Priviledge
  3. Privelege
  4. Privillage

Answer: (A) Privilege

The correct spelling is 'Privilege'.

Q90. One-word substitution: A speech delivered without preparation.
  1. Extempore
  2. Editorial
  3. Epitaph
  4. Dialogue

Answer: (A) Extempore

An extempore speech is delivered without prior preparation.

Q91. Choose the correct meaning of the idiom 'Break the ice'.
  1. Break something
  2. Start a friendly conversation
  3. End a meeting
  4. Create a problem

Answer: (B) Start a friendly conversation

The idiom means to initiate conversation or ease social tension.

Q92. Choose the correct sentence.
  1. She has lived here since five years.
  2. She has been living here for five years.
  3. She is living here since five years.
  4. She lived here since five years.

Answer: (B) She has been living here for five years.

'For' is used with a duration; present perfect continuous fits an action continuing to the present.

Q93. Choose the passive voice: 'People speak English worldwide.'
  1. English is spoken worldwide.
  2. English was spoken worldwide.
  3. English speaks worldwide.
  4. English has speak worldwide.

Answer: (A) English is spoken worldwide.

Present simple active changes to present simple passive: is/are + past participle.

Q94. Choose the correct indirect speech: Ravi said, 'I will help you.'
  1. Ravi said that he would help me.
  2. Ravi said that I will help you.
  3. Ravi says that he would help me.
  4. Ravi said that he will help you.

Answer: (A) Ravi said that he would help me.

'Will' changes to 'would' and pronouns adjust according to context.

Q95. Fill in the blank: The train arrived ___ time.
  1. in
  2. on
  3. at
  4. by

Answer: (B) on

The expression is 'on time', meaning punctual.

Q96. Choose the antonym of 'Hostile'.
  1. Friendly
  2. Angry
  3. Violent
  4. Harsh

Answer: (A) Friendly

Hostile means unfriendly; friendly is its antonym.

Q97. Choose the synonym of 'Diligent'.
  1. Lazy
  2. Careless
  3. Hardworking
  4. Noisy

Answer: (C) Hardworking

Diligent means hardworking and careful.

Q98. Identify the correctly spelled word.
  1. Questionnaire
  2. Questionaire
  3. Questionnair
  4. Quesstionnaire

Answer: (A) Questionnaire

The correct spelling is 'Questionnaire'.

Q99. One-word substitution: A place where books are kept.
  1. Laboratory
  2. Library
  3. Observatory
  4. Auditorium

Answer: (B) Library

A library is a place where books and other reading materials are kept.

Q100. Choose the correct sentence.
  1. No sooner did he arrive when it rained.
  2. No sooner had he arrived than it rained.
  3. No sooner he arrived than it rained.
  4. No sooner did he arrived than it rained.

Answer: (B) No sooner had he arrived than it rained.

The standard construction is 'No sooner...than', commonly with past perfect in the first clause.