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JEE Main Full Mock Test: Practice Test 09

Question paper with answer key. Selection Pro

Q1. A particle executes SHM with amplitude $A$ and angular frequency $\omega$. At what displacement from the mean position is its kinetic energy equal to its potential energy?
  1. $A/2$
  2. $A/\sqrt{2}$
  3. $A/\sqrt{3}$
  4. $A/4$

Answer: (B) $A/\sqrt{2}$

Total energy is $E=\frac{1}{2}m\omega^2A^2$. Potential energy at displacement $x$ is $U=\frac{1}{2}m\omega^2x^2$. For $K=U$, each must be half of total energy. Thus $x^2=A^2/2$, giving $|x|=A/\sqrt{2}$.

Q2. A projectile is fired with speed $u$ at an angle $\theta$ to the horizontal. If its maximum height is equal to one-fourth of its horizontal range, then $\tan\theta$ is:
Diagram for question 2
  1. $1/2$
  2. $1$
  3. $2$
  4. $4$

Answer: (B) $1$

Maximum height is $H=\frac{u^2\sin^2\theta}{2g}$ and range is $R=\frac{u^2\sin2\theta}{g}$. Therefore $\frac{H}{R}=\frac{\tan\theta}{4}$. Given $H/R=1/4$, we get $\tan\theta=1$.

Q3. A block of mass $m$ is attached to a spring of force constant $k$ on a smooth horizontal surface. A constant horizontal force $F$ is suddenly applied. The maximum extension of the spring from its natural length is:
  1. $F/k$
  2. $2F/k$
  3. $F/(2k)$
  4. $\sqrt{F/k}$

Answer: (B) $2F/k$

At maximum extension, the block is momentarily at rest. Work done by the constant force becomes spring potential energy: $Fx=\frac{1}{2}kx^2$. Hence the non-zero solution is $x=2F/k$.

Q4. A body of mass $m$ moving with speed $v$ collides elastically head-on with an identical body initially at rest. The first body comes to rest after collision. The speed of the second body is:
  1. $0$
  2. $v/2$
  3. $v$
  4. $2v$

Answer: (C) $v$

For a perfectly elastic head-on collision between identical masses, the velocities are exchanged. Therefore the second body moves with speed $v$.

Q5. A satellite is orbiting Earth in a circular orbit with kinetic energy $K$. Its total mechanical energy is:
  1. $K$
  2. $-K$
  3. $2K$
  4. $-2K$

Answer: (B) $-K$

For a circular orbit, $K=GMm/(2r)$ and potential energy is $U=-GMm/r=-2K$. Hence total energy $E=K+U=-K$.

Q6. Two charges $+q$ and $+4q$ are separated by distance $d$. The electric field is zero at a point between them. Its distance from the charge $+q$ is:
  1. $d/3$
  2. $d/2$
  3. $d/4$
  4. $2d/3$

Answer: (A) $d/3$

Let the point be at distance $x$ from $q$. Equating field magnitudes, $kq/x^2=4kq/(d-x)^2$. Thus $d-x=2x$, giving $x=d/3$.

Q7. A capacitor of capacitance $C$ is charged to potential $V$ and then disconnected from the battery. A dielectric of constant $K$ is completely inserted between its plates. The new electrostatic energy is:
  1. $\frac{1}{2}CV^2$
  2. $\frac{1}{2}KCV^2$
  3. $\frac{1}{2K}CV^2$
  4. $K^2CV^2$

Answer: (C) $\frac{1}{2K}CV^2$

After disconnection, charge remains constant. The new capacitance is $KC$. Hence $U'=Q^2/(2KC)$. Since initially $Q=CV$, we obtain $U'=CV^2/(2K)$.

Q8. A wire has resistance $R$. It is stretched uniformly so that its length becomes twice the original length, without change in volume. Its new resistance is:
  1. $R/2$
  2. $R$
  3. $2R$
  4. $4R$

Answer: (D) $4R$

Volume remains constant, so when length becomes $2L$, area becomes $A/2$. Since $R=\rho L/A$, the new resistance is $\rho(2L)/(A/2)=4R$.

Q9. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with velocity making an angle $\theta$ with the field. Its path is:
  1. A straight line
  2. A circle
  3. A parabola
  4. A helix

Answer: (D) A helix

The velocity component perpendicular to the magnetic field produces circular motion, while the parallel component remains uniform. Their combination produces a helical path.

Q10. A conducting rod of length $L$ moves with speed $v$ perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field $B$. The motional emf induced across its ends is:
  1. $BL/v$
  2. $BvL$
  3. $Bv/L$
  4. $BLv^2$

Answer: (B) $BvL$

For a rod moving perpendicular to the magnetic field, motional emf is $\varepsilon=BLv$.

Q11. In a series LCR circuit at resonance, the impedance is:
  1. $R$
  2. $\sqrt{R^2+(X_L+X_C)^2}$
  3. $X_L-X_C$
  4. $0$

Answer: (A) $R$

At resonance, $X_L=X_C$, so the net reactance is zero. Therefore the impedance becomes $Z=R$.

Q12. An object is placed at twice the focal length of a convex lens. The image formed is:
Diagram for question 12
  1. Virtual, erect and magnified
  2. Real, inverted and same size
  3. Real, erect and magnified
  4. Virtual and diminished

Answer: (B) Real, inverted and same size

For an object at $2f$ of a convex lens, the image forms at $2f$ on the opposite side. It is real, inverted and of the same size.

Q13. In Young's double-slit experiment, if the wavelength is doubled while slit separation and screen distance remain unchanged, the fringe width becomes:
Diagram for question 13
  1. Half
  2. Unchanged
  3. Double
  4. Four times

Answer: (C) Double

Fringe width is $\beta=\lambda D/d$. Therefore, doubling the wavelength doubles the fringe width.

Q14. A metal has work function $3\,eV$. Light of wavelength $248\,nm$ falls on it. Taking $hc=1240\,eV\,nm$, the maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons is:
  1. $1\,eV$
  2. $2\,eV$
  3. $3\,eV$
  4. $5\,eV$

Answer: (B) $2\,eV$

Photon energy is $E=hc/\lambda=1240/248=5\,eV$. Therefore $K_{max}=5-3=2\,eV$.

Q15. An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential difference. The ratio of their de Broglie wavelengths $\lambda_e/\lambda_p$ is approximately:
  1. $\sqrt{m_e/m_p}$
  2. $\sqrt{m_p/m_e}$
  3. $m_p/m_e$
  4. $1$

Answer: (B) $\sqrt{m_p/m_e}$

For a charged particle accelerated through the same potential difference, $\lambda=h/\sqrt{2mqV}$, so $\lambda\propto1/\sqrt m$. Hence $\lambda_e/\lambda_p=\sqrt{m_p/m_e}$.

Q16. A radioactive nucleus has decay constant $\lambda$. Its mean life is:
  1. $\lambda$
  2. $1/\lambda$
  3. $\lambda^2$
  4. $\ln2/\lambda$

Answer: (B) $1/\lambda$

The mean life of a radioactive substance is $\tau=1/\lambda$.

Q17. In Bohr's model, the radius of the $n$th orbit of a hydrogen atom is proportional to:
  1. $n$
  2. $1/n$
  3. $n^2$
  4. $1/n^2$

Answer: (C) $n^2$

For a hydrogen atom in Bohr's model, the orbit radius varies as $r_n\propto n^2$.

Q18. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic expansion. During the process:
  1. $Q=0$
  2. $W=0$
  3. $\Delta U=0$
  4. $T$ remains constant

Answer: (A) $Q=0$

An adiabatic process is defined as a process in which there is no heat exchange, so $Q=0$.

Q19. For an ideal gas, the rms speed of molecules is proportional to:
  1. $T$
  2. $1/T$
  3. $\sqrt{T}$
  4. $T^2$

Answer: (C) $\sqrt{T}$

The rms speed is $v_{rms}=\sqrt{3RT/M}$, hence $v_{rms}\propto\sqrt T$.

Q20. A liquid rises in a capillary tube to height $h$. If the radius of the tube is doubled, keeping all other quantities unchanged, the new height is:
  1. $h/4$
  2. $h/2$
  3. $2h$
  4. $4h$

Answer: (B) $h/2$

Capillary rise is $h=\frac{2T\cos\theta}{\rho gr}$, so $h\propto1/r$. Doubling the radius halves the capillary rise.

Q21. A body is projected vertically upward with speed $u$. Neglecting air resistance, its maximum height above the point of projection is:
  1. $u^2/g$
  2. $u^2/(2g)$
  3. $2u^2/g$
  4. $u/g$

Answer: (B) $u^2/(2g)$

Using $v^2=u^2-2gh$ and $v=0$ at maximum height gives $h=u^2/(2g)$.

Q22. A uniform rod of length $L$ and mass $M$ rotates about an axis through one end perpendicular to the rod. Its moment of inertia is:
  1. $ML^2/12$
  2. $ML^2/6$
  3. $ML^2/3$
  4. $ML^2$

Answer: (C) $ML^2/3$

For a uniform rod about an axis through one end perpendicular to its length, $I=ML^2/3$.

Q23. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere have the same mass and radius and roll without slipping down the same incline. Which reaches the bottom first?
  1. Hollow sphere
  2. Solid sphere
  3. Both simultaneously
  4. Depends only on mass

Answer: (B) Solid sphere

Rolling acceleration is $a=g\sin\theta/[1+I/(MR^2)]$. For a solid sphere $I=2MR^2/5$, while for a thin hollow sphere $I=2MR^2/3$. The solid sphere therefore has greater acceleration.

Q24. For a weak acid $HA$ of concentration $C$ and dissociation constant $K_a$, assuming small dissociation, the hydrogen ion concentration is approximately:
  1. $K_aC$
  2. $\sqrt{K_aC}$
  3. $K_a/C$
  4. $C/K_a$

Answer: (B) $\sqrt{K_aC}$

For a weak acid, $K_a\approx x^2/C$, where $x=[H^+]$. Therefore $[H^+]\approx\sqrt{K_aC}$.

Q25. A first-order reaction has rate constant $k=0.0693\,min^{-1}$. Its half-life is approximately:
  1. $5\,min$
  2. $10\,min$
  3. $20\,min$
  4. $30\,min$

Answer: (B) $10\,min$

For a first-order reaction, $t_{1/2}=0.693/k=0.693/0.0693=10\,min$.

Q26. For the equilibrium $2SO_2(g)+O_2(g)\rightleftharpoons2SO_3(g)$, increasing the volume at constant temperature shifts equilibrium toward:
  1. Products
  2. Reactants
  3. No change
  4. Both equally

Answer: (B) Reactants

The reactant side has 3 moles of gas while the product side has 2. Increasing volume lowers pressure and favors the side with more gaseous moles, so equilibrium shifts toward reactants.

Q27. For a galvanic cell, if $E^\circ_{cell}$ is positive, then under standard conditions:
  1. $\Delta G^\circ>0$
  2. $\Delta G^\circ=0$
  3. $\Delta G^\circ<0$
  4. $K=0$

Answer: (C) $\Delta G^\circ<0$

The relation is $\Delta G^\circ=-nFE^\circ_{cell}$. Thus a positive standard cell potential corresponds to a negative standard Gibbs energy change.

Q28. The oxidation number of chromium in $K_2Cr_2O_7$ is:
  1. $+3$
  2. $+4$
  3. $+6$
  4. $+7$

Answer: (C) $+6$

Let the oxidation state of Cr be $x$. Then $2(+1)+2x+7(-2)=0$, giving $x=+6$.

Q29. Which of the following has the highest lattice enthalpy in magnitude?
  1. $NaCl$
  2. $KCl$
  3. $MgO$
  4. $CsCl$

Answer: (C) $MgO$

Lattice enthalpy magnitude increases with higher ionic charges and smaller ionic sizes. $MgO$ has $2+$ and $2-$ ions, giving stronger electrostatic attraction.

Q30. The shape of $XeF_4$ according to VSEPR theory is:
  1. Tetrahedral
  2. Square planar
  3. Trigonal planar
  4. Linear

Answer: (B) Square planar

XeF4 has six electron pairs around xenon: four bond pairs and two lone pairs. The lone pairs occupy opposite positions, giving a square-planar molecular shape.

Q31. Which of the following complexes is diamagnetic?
  1. $[FeF_6]^{3-}$
  2. $[Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}$
  3. $[Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}$
  4. $[NiCl_4]^{2-}$

Answer: (C) $[Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}$

In $[Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}$, cobalt is $Co^{3+}$ with a $d^6$ configuration. The octahedral complex is low spin, giving $t_{2g}^6$ with all electrons paired. Hence it is diamagnetic.

Q32. The coordination number of chromium in $K_4[Cr(CN)_6]$ is:
  1. $4$
  2. $5$
  3. $6$
  4. $8$

Answer: (C) $6$

Six cyanide ligands are directly coordinated to chromium, so the coordination number is $6$.

Q33. Which compound gives the fastest SN1 reaction among the following?
  1. Methyl chloride
  2. Ethyl chloride
  3. Isopropyl chloride
  4. tert-Butyl chloride

Answer: (D) tert-Butyl chloride

SN1 reactions involve carbocation formation. The tert-butyl carbocation is the most stable among the given carbocations, so tert-butyl chloride reacts fastest.

Q34. The major product of acid-catalysed dehydration of 2-methylcyclohexanol is generally predicted by:
  1. Markovnikov's rule
  2. Saytzeff's rule
  3. Anti-Markovnikov rule
  4. Hund's rule

Answer: (B) Saytzeff's rule

Acid-catalysed dehydration of alcohols generally follows Saytzeff's rule, favoring the more substituted alkene.

Q35. Phenol is more acidic than ethanol mainly because:
  1. Phenol has higher molecular mass
  2. Phenoxide ion is resonance-stabilized
  3. Ethanol is aromatic
  4. Phenol contains more hydrogen

Answer: (B) Phenoxide ion is resonance-stabilized

The conjugate base of phenol, phenoxide ion, is stabilized by resonance. Ethoxide ion does not have comparable resonance stabilization.

Q36. The product obtained when ethanal is oxidized is:
  1. Ethanol
  2. Ethene
  3. Ethanoic acid
  4. Methanoic acid

Answer: (C) Ethanoic acid

Aldehydes are readily oxidized to carboxylic acids. Therefore ethanal gives ethanoic acid.

Q37. Which reagent is commonly used to distinguish aldehydes from ketones?
  1. Tollens' reagent
  2. NaCl
  3. HCl
  4. NaOH only

Answer: (A) Tollens' reagent

Aldehydes generally reduce Tollens' reagent to metallic silver, whereas ordinary ketones do not.

Q38. Which of the following is the strongest acid?
  1. $CH_3COOH$
  2. $ClCH_2COOH$
  3. $Cl_2CHCOOH$
  4. $Cl_3CCOOH$

Answer: (D) $Cl_3CCOOH$

Chlorine has a strong electron-withdrawing inductive effect. Increasing the number of chlorine atoms stabilizes the carboxylate ion and increases acidity.

Q39. Aniline is less basic than methylamine because:
  1. Aniline has no lone pair
  2. The lone pair on nitrogen in aniline is delocalized into the benzene ring
  3. Methylamine is aromatic
  4. Aniline has an acidic hydrogen

Answer: (B) The lone pair on nitrogen in aniline is delocalized into the benzene ring

In aniline, the nitrogen lone pair participates in resonance with the benzene ring, making it less available for protonation than the lone pair in methylamine.

Q40. Which polymer is formed by condensation polymerisation?
  1. Polythene
  2. PVC
  3. Nylon-6,6
  4. Teflon

Answer: (C) Nylon-6,6

Nylon-6,6 is produced by condensation polymerisation of hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid with elimination of small molecules such as water.

Q41. The number of geometrical isomers possible for $[Pt(NH_3)_2Cl_2]$ is:
  1. $1$
  2. $2$
  3. $3$
  4. $4$

Answer: (B) $2$

The square-planar complex can have cis and trans arrangements, giving two geometrical isomers.

Q42. For an ideal solution, the enthalpy of mixing is:
  1. Positive
  2. Negative
  3. Zero
  4. Infinite

Answer: (C) Zero

For an ideal solution, interactions between unlike molecules are effectively equal to those between like molecules, so $\Delta H_{mix}=0$.

Q43. According to Raoult's law, the partial vapour pressure of a component in an ideal solution is:
  1. $p_i=p_i^\circ/x_i$
  2. $p_i=x_i p_i^\circ$
  3. $p_i=x_i/p_i^\circ$
  4. $p_i=p_i^\circ+x_i$

Answer: (B) $p_i=x_i p_i^\circ$

Raoult's law states $p_i=x_i p_i^\circ$, where $x_i$ is the mole fraction and $p_i^\circ$ is the vapour pressure of pure component $i$.

Q44. For a reaction with $\Delta H<0$ and $\Delta S<0$, the reaction is spontaneous:
  1. At all temperatures
  2. At no temperature
  3. At sufficiently low temperature
  4. Only at very high temperature

Answer: (C) At sufficiently low temperature

Spontaneity requires $\Delta G=\Delta H-T\Delta S<0$. When both $\Delta H$ and $\Delta S$ are negative, sufficiently low temperature favors spontaneity.

Q45. The conjugate base of $H_2PO_4^-$ is:
  1. $H_3PO_4$
  2. $HPO_4^{2-}$
  3. $PO_4^{3-}$
  4. $H_2PO_3^-$

Answer: (B) $HPO_4^{2-}$

Removal of one proton from $H_2PO_4^-$ produces $HPO_4^{2-}$, which is its conjugate base.

Q46. Which element has the highest first ionization enthalpy among the following?
  1. Na
  2. Mg
  3. Al
  4. Si

Answer: (D) Si

Across the third period, first ionization enthalpy generally increases. Although Mg has higher ionization enthalpy than Al due to subshell configuration, Si has the highest among the given elements.

Q47. Which oxide is amphoteric?
  1. $Na_2O$
  2. $MgO$
  3. $Al_2O_3$
  4. $SO_3$

Answer: (C) $Al_2O_3$

$Al_2O_3$ reacts with both acids and bases, so it is classified as an amphoteric oxide.

Q48. The bond order of $O_2^+$ according to molecular orbital theory is:
  1. $1.5$
  2. $2$
  3. $2.5$
  4. $3$

Answer: (C) $2.5$

The bond order of $O_2$ is 2. Removing one electron from an antibonding $\pi^*$ orbital increases the bond order by $1/2$. Thus the bond order of $O_2^+$ is $2.5$.

Q49. If $z$ satisfies $|z-2|=|z+2|$, then the locus of $z=x+iy$ is:
  1. $x=0$
  2. $y=0$
  3. $x=2$
  4. $y=2$

Answer: (A) $x=0$

The point $z$ is equidistant from $(2,0)$ and $(-2,0)$. Their perpendicular bisector is the imaginary axis, so $x=0$.

Q50. The coefficient of $x^4$ in $(1+x)^6(1-x)^4$ is:
  1. $-2$
  2. $-5$
  3. $6$
  4. $8$

Answer: (A) $-2$

$(1+x)^6(1-x)^4=(1-x^2)^4(1+x)^2$. The $x^4$ coefficient comes from $6x^4$ in $(1-x^2)^4$ times $1$, and from $(-4x^2)(2x^2)$, giving $6-8=-2$.

Q51. If the roots of $x^2-(a+2)x+2a=0$ are equal, then the value of $a$ is:
  1. $0$
  2. $2$
  3. $4$
  4. $8$

Answer: (B) $2$

For equal roots, the discriminant must be zero: $(a+2)^2-8a=0$. Hence $a^2-4a+4=0$, giving $(a-2)^2=0$ and therefore $a=2$.

Q52. The sum of the first $n$ terms of an AP is $S_n=3n^2+2n$. The $n$th term is:
  1. $6n-1$
  2. $6n+1$
  3. $3n+2$
  4. $3n-1$

Answer: (A) $6n-1$

$a_n=S_n-S_{n-1}$. Therefore $a_n=(3n^2+2n)-[3(n-1)^2+2(n-1)]=6n-1$.

Q53. If $A$ is a $2\times2$ matrix with $|A|=3$, then $|A^{-1}|$ is:
  1. $3$
  2. $1/3$
  3. $-3$
  4. $1/9$

Answer: (B) $1/3$

For a non-singular matrix, $|A^{-1}|=1/|A|$. Hence $|A^{-1}|=1/3$.

Q54. If $\vec a$ and $\vec b$ are unit vectors and $|\vec a+\vec b|=\sqrt3$, then the angle between them is:
  1. $30^\circ$
  2. $45^\circ$
  3. $60^\circ$
  4. $90^\circ$

Answer: (C) $60^\circ$

$|a+b|^2=|a|^2+|b|^2+2a\cdot b=2+2\cos\theta$. Given $|a+b|^2=3$, we get $\cos\theta=1/2$, so $\theta=60^\circ$.

Q55. The tangent to the parabola $y^2=4ax$ at the point $(at^2,2at)$ is:
  1. $ty=x+at^2$
  2. $ty=x-at^2$
  3. $y=tx+a$
  4. $y=tx-at^2$

Answer: (A) $ty=x+at^2$

For the parabola $y^2=4ax$, the point corresponding to parameter $t$ is $(at^2,2at)$. Its tangent is $ty=x+at^2$.

Q56. The maximum value of $\sin x+\cos x$ is:
  1. $1$
  2. $\sqrt2$
  3. $2$
  4. $1/\sqrt2$

Answer: (B) $\sqrt2$

$\sin x+\cos x=\sqrt2\sin(x+\pi/4)$. Since the maximum value of sine is $1$, the maximum value is $\sqrt2$.

Q57. The value of $\lim_{x\to0}\frac{\sin x-x}{x^3}$ is:
  1. $-1/6$
  2. $1/6$
  3. $-1/3$
  4. $1/3$

Answer: (A) $-1/6$

Using the expansion $\sin x=x-x^3/6+O(x^5)$, we get $\sin x-x=-x^3/6+O(x^5)$. Therefore the limit is $-1/6$.

Q58. If $f(x)=x^3-3x$, the local maximum value of $f(x)$ is:
  1. $-2$
  2. $0$
  3. $2$
  4. $3$

Answer: (C) $2$

$f'(x)=3x^2-3=0$ gives $x=\pm1$. Since $f''(x)=6x$, $x=-1$ gives a local maximum. Therefore $f(-1)=2$.

Q59. The integral $\int \frac{dx}{1+x^2}$ is:
  1. $\ln(1+x^2)+C$
  2. $\tan^{-1}x+C$
  3. $\sin^{-1}x+C$
  4. $\frac{1}{1+x^2}+C$

Answer: (B) $\tan^{-1}x+C$

The standard integral is $\int\frac{dx}{1+x^2}=\tan^{-1}x+C$.

Q60. The value of $\int_0^{\pi/2}\sin x\cos x\,dx$ is:
  1. $0$
  2. $1/2$
  3. $1$
  4. $2$

Answer: (B) $1/2$

Using $\sin x\cos x=\frac12\sin2x$, the integral from $0$ to $\pi/2$ evaluates to $1/2$.

Q61. The differential equation $\frac{dy}{dx}=y$ has general solution:
  1. $y=x+C$
  2. $y=Ce^x$
  3. $y=Cx$
  4. $y=e^{x+C^2}$

Answer: (B) $y=Ce^x$

Separating variables gives $dy/y=dx$. Integration gives $\ln y=x+C$, hence $y=Ce^x$.

Q62. The distance of the point $(2,-3)$ from the line $3x+4y-5=0$ is:
  1. $11/5$
  2. $2$
  3. $3/5$
  4. $4$

Answer: (A) $11/5$

Distance $=\frac{|3(2)+4(-3)-5|}{\sqrt{3^2+4^2}}=\frac{|-11|}{5}=\frac{11}{5}$.

Q63. The equation of the circle having diameter endpoints $(1,2)$ and $(5,6)$ is:
  1. $(x-3)^2+(y-4)^2=8$
  2. $(x-3)^2+(y-4)^2=4$
  3. $(x-1)^2+(y-2)^2=8$
  4. $(x-5)^2+(y-6)^2=8$

Answer: (A) $(x-3)^2+(y-4)^2=8$

The centre is the midpoint $(3,4)$. The diameter is $4\sqrt2$, so the radius is $2\sqrt2$ and $r^2=8$. Hence the equation is $(x-3)^2+(y-4)^2=8$.

Q64. The length of the latus rectum of the parabola $y^2=12x$ is:
  1. $3$
  2. $6$
  3. $12$
  4. $24$

Answer: (C) $12$

Comparing $y^2=12x$ with $y^2=4ax$, we get $4a=12$, so $a=3$. Therefore the latus rectum length is $4a=12$.

Q65. If $\sec\theta+\tan\theta=3$, then $\sec\theta-\tan\theta$ equals:
  1. $1/3$
  2. $1/2$
  3. $2$
  4. $3$

Answer: (A) $1/3$

$(\sec\theta+\tan\theta)(\sec\theta-\tan\theta)=\sec^2\theta-\tan^2\theta=1$. Therefore $\sec\theta-\tan\theta=1/3$.

Q66. The principal value of $\tan^{-1}(1)+\tan^{-1}(1)$ is:
  1. $\pi/4$
  2. $\pi/2$
  3. $3\pi/4$
  4. $\pi$

Answer: (B) $\pi/2$

The principal value of $\tan^{-1}(1)$ is $\pi/4$. Therefore the sum is $\pi/4+\pi/4=\pi/2$.

Q67. A fair die is thrown twice. The probability that the sum of the outcomes is $9$ is:
  1. $1/6$
  2. $1/9$
  3. $1/12$
  4. $1/18$

Answer: (B) $1/9$

Favourable pairs are $(3,6),(4,5),(5,4),(6,3)$, giving 4 outcomes out of 36. Therefore probability is $4/36=1/9$.

Q68. If the mean of $5$ observations is $12$, their sum is:
  1. $17$
  2. $50$
  3. $60$
  4. $72$

Answer: (C) $60$

Mean = sum/number of observations. Therefore sum $=12\times5=60$.

Q69. The variance of the data $2,4,6,8,10$ is:
  1. $4$
  2. $6$
  3. $8$
  4. $10$

Answer: (C) $8$

Mean is $6$. Squared deviations are $16,4,0,4,16$, whose sum is $40$. Population variance is $40/5=8$.

Q70. If $A$ is a $3\times3$ matrix and $|A|=5$, then $|3A|$ is:
  1. $15$
  2. $45$
  3. $135$
  4. $27$

Answer: (C) $135$

For an $n\times n$ matrix, $|kA|=k^n|A|$. Thus for a $3\times3$ matrix, $|3A|=3^3|A|=27\times5=135$.

Q71. The number of ways of arranging the letters of the word 'LEVEL' is:
  1. $20$
  2. $30$
  3. $60$
  4. $120$

Answer: (B) $30$

LEVEL contains two L's and two E's. Therefore the number of distinct arrangements is $5!/(2!2!)=30$.

Q72. The number of ways to choose a committee of 2 men and 3 women from 5 men and 6 women is:
  1. $150$
  2. $200$
  3. $300$
  4. $450$

Answer: (B) $200$

Choose 2 men from 5 in ${}^{5}C_2=10$ ways and 3 women from 6 in ${}^{6}C_3=20$ ways. Therefore total ways $=10\times20=200$.

Q73. If $P(A)=1/2$, $P(B)=1/3$, and $A$ and $B$ are independent, then $P(A\cap B)$ is:
  1. $1/6$
  2. $1/5$
  3. $2/3$
  4. $5/6$

Answer: (A) $1/6$

For independent events, $P(A\cap B)=P(A)P(B)=\frac12\times\frac13=\frac16$.

Q74. The area under the curve $y=2x$ from $x=1$ to $x=3$ is:
  1. $4$
  2. $6$
  3. $8$
  4. $10$

Answer: (C) $8$

Area $=\int_1^3 2x\,dx=[x^2]_1^3=9-1=8$.

Q75. If $\frac{dy}{dx}+y=e^x$, then the integrating factor is:
  1. $e^x$
  2. $e^{-x}$
  3. $x$
  4. $1+x$

Answer: (A) $e^x$

For a linear differential equation $dy/dx+Py=Q$, the integrating factor is $e^{\int Pdx}$. Here $P=1$, so the integrating factor is $e^x$.