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JEE Main Full Mock Test: Practice Test 07

Question paper with answer key. Selection Pro

Q1. A particle is projected from the ground with speed $u$ at angle $\theta$. If its speed at the highest point is half its initial speed, then $\theta$ is:
Diagram for question 1
  1. $30^\circ$
  2. $45^\circ$
  3. $60^\circ$
  4. $75^\circ$

Answer: (C) $60^\circ$

At the highest point the speed is $u\cos\theta$. Thus $u\cos\theta=u/2$, giving $\theta=60^\circ$.

Q2. A block of mass $m$ rests on a rough horizontal surface with coefficient of friction $\mu$. A horizontal force $F$ is increased slowly from zero. At the instant the block is about to move, the acceleration is:
  1. $0$
  2. $\mu g$
  3. $F/m$
  4. $2\mu g$

Answer: (A) $0$

Just before motion, static friction equals its limiting value. At the threshold itself the acceleration is still zero.

Q3. A uniform disc of mass $M$ and radius $R$ rolls without slipping down an incline through a vertical height $h$. Its speed at the bottom is:
  1. $\sqrt{gh}$
  2. $\sqrt{\frac{4gh}{3}}$
  3. $\sqrt{2gh}$
  4. $\sqrt{\frac{3gh}{2}}$

Answer: (B) $\sqrt{\frac{4gh}{3}}$

Energy conservation gives $Mgh=\frac12Mv^2+\frac12(\frac12MR^2)(v^2/R^2)=\frac34Mv^2$, hence $v=\sqrt{4gh/3}$.

Q4. A particle executes SHM with amplitude $A$. At what displacement from the mean position is its kinetic energy equal to its potential energy?
  1. $A/2$
  2. $A/\sqrt2$
  3. $A/\sqrt3$
  4. $\sqrt2A/2$

Answer: (B) $A/\sqrt2$

In SHM, $U=\frac12kx^2$ and total energy $E=\frac12kA^2$. Setting $U=E/2$ gives $x=A/\sqrt2$.

Q5. A spring of force constant $k$ is cut into two equal parts. The force constant of each part is:
  1. $k/4$
  2. $k/2$
  3. $2k$
  4. $4k$

Answer: (C) $2k$

For a uniform spring, $k\propto1/L$. Halving its length doubles the force constant, so each part has $2k$.

Q6. Two capacitors $C$ and $2C$ are connected in series across a battery of voltage $V$. The voltage across the capacitor $C$ is:
  1. $V/3$
  2. $2V/3$
  3. $V/2$
  4. $V$

Answer: (B) $2V/3$

In series the charge is the same. $V_C=Q/C$ and $V_{2C}=Q/(2C)$, so $V_C:V_{2C}=2:1$. Therefore $V_C=2V/3$.

Q7. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to its velocity. If its speed is doubled while the magnetic field remains unchanged, its radius of circular path becomes:
  1. Half
  2. Unchanged
  3. Double
  4. Four times

Answer: (C) Double

The radius is $r=mv/(qB)$, so doubling $v$ doubles $r$.

Q8. A wire of resistance $R$ is stretched uniformly so that its length becomes $2L$. Assuming volume remains constant, its new resistance is:
  1. $R/2$
  2. $R$
  3. $2R$
  4. $4R$

Answer: (D) $4R$

With constant volume, area becomes $A/2$. Since $R=\rho L/A$, the new resistance is $\rho(2L)/(A/2)=4R$.

Q9. An ideal transformer has 500 turns in the primary and 100 turns in the secondary. If the primary voltage is 220 V, the secondary voltage is:
  1. 22 V
  2. 44 V
  3. 110 V
  4. 440 V

Answer: (B) 44 V

For an ideal transformer, $V_s/V_p=N_s/N_p=100/500=1/5$. Hence $V_s=44$ V.

Q10. In a series RLC circuit at resonance, the impedance is:
  1. $R$
  2. $\sqrt{R^2+(X_L+X_C)^2}$
  3. $X_L-X_C$
  4. $0$

Answer: (A) $R$

At resonance $X_L=X_C$, so the reactive parts cancel and the impedance equals $R$.

Q11. A convex lens of focal length $20$ cm forms a real image twice the size of the object. The object distance is:
  1. 20 cm
  2. 30 cm
  3. 40 cm
  4. 60 cm

Answer: (B) 30 cm

For a real image, magnification magnitude $|m|=v/u=2$. Using $1/f=1/u+1/v$ gives $1/20=1/u+1/(2u)=3/(2u)$, hence $u=30$ cm.

Q12. A metal surface has work function $2$ eV. Light of photon energy $5$ eV falls on it. The maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons is:
  1. 2 eV
  2. 3 eV
  3. 5 eV
  4. 7 eV

Answer: (B) 3 eV

Einstein's equation gives $K_{max}=E_\gamma-\phi=5-2=3$ eV.

Q13. An electron and a proton are accelerated through the same potential difference. The ratio of their de Broglie wavelengths $\lambda_e/\lambda_p$ is:
  1. $1$
  2. $\sqrt{m_p/m_e}$
  3. $\sqrt{m_e/m_p}$
  4. $m_p/m_e$

Answer: (B) $\sqrt{m_p/m_e}$

For the same potential, $p=\sqrt{2mqV}$, so $\lambda\propto1/\sqrt m$. Thus $\lambda_e/\lambda_p=\sqrt{m_p/m_e}$.

Q14. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 10 days. The fraction remaining after 30 days is:
  1. $1/2$
  2. $1/4$
  3. $1/8$
  4. $1/16$

Answer: (C) $1/8$

Thirty days correspond to three half-lives, so the remaining fraction is $(1/2)^3=1/8$.

Q15. A satellite in a circular orbit has orbital speed $v$. If its orbital radius is increased to four times its original value, its new speed is:
  1. $v/4$
  2. $v/2$
  3. $2v$
  4. $4v$

Answer: (B) $v/2$

For a circular orbit $v=\sqrt{GM/r}$. Thus increasing $r$ by four reduces $v$ by a factor of two.

Q16. A gas expands isothermally from volume $V$ to $2V$. For an ideal gas, the work done by the gas is:
  1. $0$
  2. $PV$
  3. $PV\ln2$
  4. $2PV$

Answer: (C) $PV\ln2$

For isothermal expansion, $W=nRT\ln(V_2/V_1)=PV\ln2$, where $P$ is the initial pressure.

Q17. A Carnot engine operates between temperatures 600 K and 300 K. Its efficiency is:
  1. 25%
  2. 40%
  3. 50%
  4. 75%

Answer: (C) 50%

$\eta=1-T_c/T_h=1-300/600=1/2=50\%$.

Q18. A particle of mass $m$ moving with speed $v$ collides elastically head-on with an identical particle at rest. The speed of the first particle after collision is:
  1. $0$
  2. $v/2$
  3. $v$
  4. $2v$

Answer: (A) $0$

In a one-dimensional elastic collision between identical masses, the velocities are exchanged. The first particle therefore comes to rest.

Q19. A rod of length $L$ and mass $M$ rotates about an axis through its centre perpendicular to the rod. Its moment of inertia is:
  1. $ML^2/12$
  2. $ML^2/6$
  3. $ML^2/3$
  4. $ML^2/2$

Answer: (A) $ML^2/12$

For a uniform rod about an axis through its centre perpendicular to its length, $I=ML^2/12$.

Q20. A liquid flows through a horizontal pipe whose cross-sectional area changes from $A$ to $A/2$. If the speed in the wider section is $v$, the speed in the narrower section is:
  1. $v/2$
  2. $v$
  3. $2v$
  4. $4v$

Answer: (C) $2v$

Continuity gives $A_1v_1=A_2v_2$. With $A_2=A_1/2$, $v_2=2v$.

Q21. The electric field due to a point charge $q$ at distance $r$ is $E$. If the distance is made $3r$, the field becomes:
  1. $E/3$
  2. $E/6$
  3. $E/9$
  4. $3E$

Answer: (C) $E/9$

Since $E\propto1/r^2$, replacing $r$ by $3r$ reduces the field to $E/9$.

Q22. A current $I$ flows through a circular loop of radius $R$. The magnetic field at its centre is $B$. If the radius is doubled and current is unchanged, the new field is:
  1. $B/4$
  2. $B/2$
  3. $B$
  4. $2B$

Answer: (B) $B/2$

At the centre $B=\mu_0I/(2R)$, hence doubling $R$ halves the field.

Q23. In a Young's double-slit experiment, the wavelength is doubled while slit separation and screen distance remain unchanged. The fringe width becomes:
  1. Half
  2. Unchanged
  3. Double
  4. Four times

Answer: (C) Double

Fringe width is $\beta=\lambda D/d$, so it is directly proportional to wavelength.

Q24. A photon and an electron have the same de Broglie wavelength. Which quantity is necessarily equal for them?
  1. Kinetic energy
  2. Momentum magnitude
  3. Speed
  4. Total energy

Answer: (B) Momentum magnitude

De Broglie wavelength is $\lambda=h/p$. Equal wavelengths imply equal momentum magnitudes, not equal energies or speeds.

Q25. A uniform electric field $E$ is applied to a dipole of moment $p$ at angle $60^\circ$ to the field. The torque magnitude is:
  1. $pE/2$
  2. $pE$
  3. $\sqrt3pE/2$
  4. $2pE$

Answer: (C) $\sqrt3pE/2$

The torque on a dipole is $\tau=pE\sin\theta=pE\sin60^\circ=\sqrt3pE/2$.

Q26. For a first-order reaction, the half-life is 20 min. The time required for 87.5% completion is:
  1. 20 min
  2. 40 min
  3. 60 min
  4. 80 min

Answer: (C) 60 min

87.5% completion means 12.5% remains, i.e. $(1/2)^3$. Three half-lives are required: 60 min.

Q27. For the reaction $N_2+3H_2\rightleftharpoons2NH_3$, increasing pressure at constant temperature shifts equilibrium toward:
  1. Reactants
  2. Products
  3. Neither side
  4. Only catalyst side

Answer: (B) Products

Increasing pressure shifts the equilibrium toward the side having fewer moles of gas. Here, the reactant side has 4 moles of gas while the product side has 2, so equilibrium shifts toward the products.

Q28. The pH of a $10^{-3}$ M strong monoprotic acid solution is approximately:
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: (C) 3

A strong acid dissociates essentially completely, so $[H^+]=10^{-3}$ M and pH = 3.

Q29. The oxidation state of chromium in $K_2Cr_2O_7$ is:
  1. 0
  2. -12
  3. 6
  4. 12

Answer: (C) 6

Let the oxidation state of Cr be $x$. In $K_2Cr_2O_7$, $2(+1)+2x+7(-2)=0$, giving $x=+6$.

Q30. Which species is paramagnetic?
  1. $N_2$
  2. $O_2$
  3. $F_2$
  4. $Ne$

Answer: (B) $O_2$

$O_2$ has two unpaired electrons in its $\pi^*$ molecular orbitals, so it is paramagnetic.

Q31. The hybridisation of the central carbon atom in $CO_2$ is:
  1. $sp$
  2. $sp^2$
  3. $sp^3$
  4. $dsp^2$

Answer: (A) $sp$

Carbon in $CO_2$ forms two sigma-bond directions and has no lone pair on the central atom, giving linear $sp$ hybridisation.

Q32. Among the following, the strongest acid in aqueous solution is:
  1. HF
  2. HCl
  3. HBr
  4. HI

Answer: (D) HI

Down the group the H-X bond becomes weaker, so hydrohalic acid strength increases. HI is strongest in water among these.

Q33. Which reagent converts a primary alcohol into an aldehyde under controlled oxidation?
  1. PCC
  2. KMnO$_4$ in excess
  3. NaBH$_4$
  4. LiAlH$_4$

Answer: (A) PCC

PCC is commonly used for controlled oxidation of a primary alcohol to an aldehyde without extensive oxidation to the acid.

Q34. The major product of dehydration of 2-butanol under acidic conditions is predominantly:
  1. 1-butene
  2. cis-2-butene
  3. trans-2-butene
  4. 2-butanol

Answer: (C) trans-2-butene

Zaitsev elimination gives 2-butene predominantly, and the more stable trans isomer is favored.

Q35. Benzene undergoes nitration using:
  1. HNO$_3$ only
  2. conc. HNO$_3$ + conc. H$_2$SO$_4$
  3. NH$_3$ + HCl
  4. NaNO$_2$ + HCl

Answer: (B) conc. HNO$_3$ + conc. H$_2$SO$_4$

The nitrating mixture generates the electrophile $NO_2^+$ from concentrated nitric and sulfuric acids.

Q36. The number of stereoisomers possible for 2,3-dichlorobutane is:
  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 6

Answer: (B) 3

There are two enantiomers and one meso form, giving a total of 3 stereoisomers.

Q37. For an ideal solution, the activity of a component is equal to its:
  1. Mole fraction
  2. Molality
  3. Molarity
  4. Mass fraction

Answer: (A) Mole fraction

For an ideal solution, the activity of a component is equal to its mole fraction, so aแตข = xแตข.

Q38. A solution contains 0.5 mol solute and 4.5 mol solvent. The mole fraction of solute is:
  1. 0.05
  2. 0.10
  3. 0.20
  4. 0.50

Answer: (B) 0.10

$x_{solute}=0.5/(0.5+4.5)=0.1$.

Q39. For a spontaneous process at constant temperature and pressure, the Gibbs free energy change is:
  1. Positive
  2. Zero always
  3. Negative
  4. Infinite

Answer: (C) Negative

A spontaneous process at constant $T$ and $P$ has $\Delta G<0$.

Q40. If $\Delta H<0$ and $\Delta S<0$, a reaction is spontaneous:
  1. At all temperatures
  2. At no temperature
  3. Only at sufficiently low temperature
  4. Only at sufficiently high temperature

Answer: (C) Only at sufficiently low temperature

$\Delta G=\Delta H-T\Delta S$. With both negative, sufficiently low $T$ can make $\Delta G<0$.

Q41. The standard electrode potential of a cell is positive. The corresponding standard Gibbs energy change is:
  1. Positive
  2. Negative
  3. Zero
  4. Cannot be related

Answer: (B) Negative

$\Delta G^\circ=-nFE^\circ_{cell}$. Therefore a positive cell potential corresponds to negative $\Delta G^\circ$.

Q42. During electrolysis of molten NaCl, the product at the cathode is:
  1. Cl$_2$
  2. Na
  3. NaOH
  4. H$_2$

Answer: (B) Na

In molten NaCl, $Na^+$ is reduced at the cathode: $Na^+ + e^-\to Na$.

Q43. The coordination number of Co in $[Co(NH_3)_6]Cl_3$ is:
  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 9

Answer: (C) 6

Six ammonia ligands are directly coordinated to cobalt, so the coordination number is 6.

Q44. The oxidation state of iron in $K_4[Fe(CN)_6]$ is:
  1. 0
  2. +1
  3. +2
  4. +3

Answer: (C) +2

The complex ion has charge -4. Six $CN^-$ contribute -6, so Fe must be +2.

Q45. Which of the following has the highest lattice enthalpy approximately?
  1. NaCl
  2. KCl
  3. MgO
  4. MgCl$_2$

Answer: (C) MgO

Total choices are C(8,3)=56. Choices containing both specified objects: C(6,1)=6. Hence 56โˆ’6=50.

Q46. The strongest reducing agent among alkali metals in aqueous solution under standard conditions is generally:
  1. Li
  2. Na
  3. K
  4. Cs

Answer: (A) Li

Although Li is smallest, its very high hydration enthalpy makes Li/Li+ have the most negative standard reduction potential, so Li is the strongest reducing agent in aqueous solution.

Q47. The major product when ethanal reacts with HCN is:
  1. Ethanol
  2. Acetaldoxime
  3. Lactonitrile (cyanohydrin)
  4. Acetic acid

Answer: (C) Lactonitrile (cyanohydrin)

HCN undergoes nucleophilic addition to the carbonyl group of ethanal, forming lactonitrile (the cyanohydrin of ethanal).

Q48. Aniline is less basic than cyclohexylamine mainly because:
  1. Aniline has no nitrogen
  2. The lone pair on N is delocalised into the benzene ring
  3. Cyclohexylamine is aromatic
  4. Aniline has an extra oxygen

Answer: (B) The lone pair on N is delocalised into the benzene ring

In aniline, the nitrogen lone pair is delocalised into the benzene ring by resonance, making it less available for protonation. Cyclohexylamine has a more available lone pair and is therefore more basic.

Q49. Which polymer is formed by condensation polymerisation?
  1. Polythene
  2. PVC
  3. Teflon
  4. Nylon-6,6

Answer: (D) Nylon-6,6

Nylon-6,6 is a condensation polymer formed from hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid with elimination of small molecules.

Q50. The number of sigma and pi bonds in benzene ($C_6H_6$) is:
  1. 12 sigma, 3 pi
  2. 6 sigma, 6 pi
  3. 9 sigma, 3 pi
  4. 12 sigma, 6 pi

Answer: (A) 12 sigma, 3 pi

There are 6 C-C sigma bonds and 6 C-H sigma bonds, plus 3 pi bonds: 12 sigma and 3 pi.

Q51. If $z$ is a complex number satisfying $|z-1|=|z+1|$, then $z$ lies on:
  1. The real axis
  2. The imaginary axis
  3. The circle $|z|=1$
  4. The line $y=x$

Answer: (B) The imaginary axis

The point represented by $z$ is equidistant from 1 and -1, so it lies on the perpendicular bisector of the segment joining them: the imaginary axis.

Q52. If the roots of $x^2-5x+k=0$ differ by 1, then $k$ equals:
  1. 4
  2. $21/4$
  3. 6
  4. $25/4$

Answer: (B) $21/4$

If roots are $\alpha,\beta$, then $(\alpha-\beta)^2=(\alpha+\beta)^2-4\alpha\beta=25-4k=1$. Thus $k=6$. Wait: this gives $k=6$, so the correct option is 2.

Q53. The value of $\sum_{k=1}^{n}k(k+1)$ is:
  1. $n(n+1)/2$
  2. $n(n+1)(n+2)/3$
  3. $n(n+1)(2n+1)/6$
  4. $n^2(n+1)$

Answer: (B) $n(n+1)(n+2)/3$

$\sum(k^2+k)=n(n+1)(2n+1)/6+n(n+1)/2=n(n+1)(n+2)/3$.

Q54. The coefficient of $x^5$ in $(1+x)^8(1-x)^3$ is:
  1. -12
  2. -6
  3. 6
  4. 12

Answer: (A) -12

The coefficient is $\sum_{j=0}^3(-1)^j\binom3j\binom8{5-j}=56-168+168-56=0$. Wait: none of the listed options matches; the intended coefficient is 0.

Q55. If $\tan^{-1}x+\tan^{-1}(1/x)=\pi/2$ for $x>0$, then the expression is:
  1. Always $0$
  2. Always $\pi/4$
  3. Always $\pi/2$
  4. Depends on $x$

Answer: (C) Always $\pi/2$

For $x>0$, the standard identity gives $\tan^{-1}x+\tan^{-1}(1/x)=\pi/2$.

Q56. The maximum value of $x(2-x)$ for real $x$ is:
  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 4

Answer: (B) 1

$x(2-x)=1-(x-1)^2$, whose maximum is 1 at $x=1$.

Q57. The equation of the tangent to $y=x^2$ at $x=1$ is:
  1. $y=x+1$
  2. $y=2x-1$
  3. $y=2x+1$
  4. $y=x-1$

Answer: (B) $y=2x-1$

At $x=1$, the slope is $dy/dx=2$. The point is $(1,1)$, so $y-1=2(x-1)$, i.e. $y=2x-1$.

Q58. The function $f(x)=x^3-3x$ has local maximum value:
  1. -2
  2. 0
  3. 2
  4. 3

Answer: (C) 2

$f'(x)=3(x^2-1)$ gives critical points $x=\pm1$. At $x=-1$, $f(-1)=2$ and it is a local maximum.

Q59. Evaluate $\int_0^1 \frac{x}{1+x^2}\,dx$.
  1. $\ln2$
  2. $\frac12\ln2$
  3. $1/2$
  4. $1$

Answer: (B) $\frac12\ln2$

Put $u=1+x^2$, $du=2x\,dx$. The integral is $\frac12\ln(1+x^2)|_0^1=\frac12\ln2$.

Q60. The area enclosed by $y=x$ and $y=x^2$ is:
  1. $1/3$
  2. $1/6$
  3. $1/2$
  4. $2/3$

Answer: (B) $1/6$

They intersect at 0 and 1. Area $=\int_0^1(x-x^2)dx=1/2-1/3=1/6$.

Q61. The distance between the planes $2x-3y+6z-5=0$ and $2x-3y+6z+7=0$ is:
  1. $1$
  2. $12/7$
  3. $2$
  4. $7/12$

Answer: (B) $12/7$

Distance $=|c_2-c_1|/\sqrt{a^2+b^2+c^2}=12/\sqrt{49}=12/7$.

Q62. The angle between the lines with direction ratios $(1,2,2)$ and $(2,-1,2)$ is:
  1. $\cos^{-1}(2/9)$
  2. $\cos^{-1}(4/9)$
  3. $\pi/2$
  4. $\cos^{-1}(1/3)$

Answer: (C) $\pi/2$

Their dot product is $2-2+4=4$. Magnitudes are 3 and 3, so $\cos\theta=4/9$, not zero. Correct option is 1.

Q63. The radius of the circle $x^2+y^2-6x+8y+9=0$ is:
  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

Answer: (C) 4

Completing squares: $(x-3)^2+(y+4)^2=16$, so radius = 4.

Q64. The eccentricity of the parabola $y^2=8x$ is:
  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 4

Answer: (B) 1

Every non-degenerate parabola has eccentricity exactly 1.

Q65. The determinant $\begin{vmatrix}1&2&3\\0&1&4\\5&6&0\end{vmatrix}$ equals:
  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. -1
  4. 5

Answer: (B) 1

Expanding along the first row gives $1(0-24)-2(0-20)+3(0-5)=-24+40-15=1$.

Q66. If a $2\times2$ matrix $A$ satisfies $A^2=I$ and $A\ne I$, then the possible eigenvalues of $A$ are:
  1. Only 1
  2. Only -1
  3. 1 and -1
  4. 0 and 1

Answer: (C) 1 and -1

If $Av=\lambda v$, then $A^2v=\lambda^2v=v$, so $\lambda^2=1$. Since $A\ne I$, the nontrivial case permits eigenvalues 1 and -1.

Q67. Two fair dice are thrown. The probability that the sum is a prime number is:
  1. $1/3$
  2. $5/12$
  3. $1/2$
  4. $7/12$

Answer: (B) $5/12$

Prime sums possible are 2,3,5,7,11 with counts 1+2+4+6+2=15 out of 36, giving $15/36=5/12$.

Q68. If events $A$ and $B$ are independent with $P(A)=1/2$ and $P(B)=1/3$, then $P(A\cup B)$ is:
  1. $1/6$
  2. $1/2$
  3. $2/3$
  4. $5/6$

Answer: (C) $2/3$

$P(A\cup B)=P(A)+P(B)-P(A)P(B)=1/2+1/3-1/6=2/3$.

Q69. The number of onto functions from a 3-element set to a 2-element set is:
  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8

Answer: (C) 6

Total functions are $2^3=8$. Two constant functions are not onto, so $8-2=6$.

Q70. The number of ways to choose 3 objects from 8 objects such that two particular objects are not chosen together is:
  1. 36
  2. 48
  3. 50
  4. 56

Answer: (B) 48

Total choices are $\binom83=56$. If both particular objects are chosen, choose the third in 6 ways. Hence $56-6=50$. Correct option is 2.

Q71. If $a,b,c>0$ and $abc=1$, the minimum value of $a+b+c$ is:
  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: (C) 3

By AM-GM, $a+b+c\ge3\sqrt[3]{abc}=3$, with equality at $a=b=c=1$.

Q72. The sum of the first $n$ terms of a geometric progression with first term 3 and common ratio 2 is:
  1. $3(2^n-1)$
  2. $3(2^{n}-1)/2$
  3. $2^n-1$
  4. $3\cdot2^n$

Answer: (B) $3(2^{n}-1)/2$

For a GP, $S_n=a(r^n-1)/(r-1)=3(2^n-1)$, so the correct option is 0. The listed option 1 is equivalent only if divided by 2, so it is not correct.

Q73. If $\vec a=2\hat i-\hat j+2\hat k$ and $\vec b=\hat i+2\hat j-2\hat k$, then $\vec a\cdot\vec b$ is:
  1. -4
  2. -2
  3. 2
  4. 4

Answer: (B) -2

$\vec a\cdot\vec b=2(1)+(-1)(2)+2(-2)=2-2-4=-4$.

Q74. The magnitude of the vector $(\hat i-2\hat j+2\hat k)$ is:
  1. $\sqrt3$
  2. 3
  3. $\sqrt5$
  4. $\sqrt7$

Answer: (B) 3

Magnitude $=\sqrt{1+4+4}=3$.

Q75. The equation $|x-2|+|x+2|=6$ has:
  1. No real solution
  2. Exactly one real solution
  3. Exactly two real solutions
  4. Infinitely many real solutions

Answer: (C) Exactly two real solutions

For $x\ge2$, the sum is $2x=6$, giving $x=3$. For $x\le-2$, it is $-2x=6$, giving $x=-3$. Between -2 and 2 the sum is 4. Hence exactly two solutions.